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Biomedical subjects

Y Taniguchi

Publications and source records attributed to Y Taniguchi.

At least 253 records · Page 14Linked to original sources

Confirmation of a "safety zone" by intraoperative cholangiography during laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

BACKGROUND: Creating a "safety zone" during laparoscopic cholecystectomy is defined as dissection of the cystic duct as close as possible to the gallbladder. METHODS: In 29 out of 802 cases in which laparoscopic cholecystectomy was difficult to perform due to uncertainty about the orientation of Calot's triangle, intraoperative cholangiography was performed, using a titanium clip as a marker that designated the safety zone. The distance between the clip and the common hepatic duct or the common bile duct could be determined by evaluation of two intraoperative cholangiograms taken in different orientation. RESULTS: If the clip was located in the safety zone, and was distant from the common hepatic duct or common bile duct, the safety of preparation around the clip was ensured. No complication was encountered in these cases with this method. Eventually, no biliary tract injury was experienced, and the overall conversion rate to open cholecystectomy was only 0.4% (3 of 802 consecutive cases). CONCLUSIONS: This method of confirming the safety zone by intraoperative cholangiography is a useful procedure for avoiding inadvertent injury to the biliary tract.

Bile Duct Diseases↗

Hepatocyte growth factor in nephronophthisis-medullary cystic disease complex.

A 13-year-old Japanese girl presented with severe anemia and renal dysfunction. The nephronophthisis-medullary cystic disease complex was diagnosed from the results of renal biopsy and a family study. Immunohistochemical detection of hepatocyte growth factor in the epithelial cells of dilated renal tubules suggested that it may have a role in the development of the tubular cystic changes which are characteristic of this disease.

Adolescent↗

The thiol enzyme from rat spleen that produces bradykinin potentiating peptide from rat plasma.

We have focused our studies on a thiol-dependent enzyme of 37 kilodaltons (kDa) that produces a bradykinin (BK) potentiating peptide. The molecular mass of the peptide was estimated to be around 750 Da and its amino acid composition was Pro4 Gly2 Leu1 Ser1 with a proline and a serine at the N- and C-terminals, respectively. Biological activity was assayed by means of uterus contraction. The enzyme differs from Cathepsin L or B by virtue of its immunological reactivity and enzyme kinetics. The inhibitors used were leupeptin, antipain, E-64 and chymostatin in order of effectiveness. The low molecular SH reagents also diminished the enzyme activity. Among the metal ions tested, Cu2+ and Zn2+ inhibited the reaction.

Animals↗

Stability of p53 tumor suppressor gene mutations during the process of metastasis and during chemotherapy.

We analyzed 29 pairs of primary and metastatic lung carcinomas obtained at autopsy for mutations in the p53 gene, using the polymerase chain reaction-single strand conformation polymorphism method (PCR-SSCP). We examined the relationship between p53 gene mutations and the development of metastasis, and the stability of p53 gene mutations during chemotherapy. The tumors consisted of six small cell carcinomas, 13 adenocarcinomas, eight squamous cell carcinomas, one large cell carcinoma, and one adeno-squamous cell carcinoma. PCR-SSCP analysis showed that three small cell carcinomas (50%), three adenocarcinomas (23%), two squamous cell carcinomas (25%), and one large cell carcinoma (100%) had p53 gene mutations. All these abnormalities were found between exon five and exon eight. The mutations in the primary tumors and the metastatic tumors were identical. These results suggest that p53 gene mutations occur before distant metastases develop, and that they may be stable during the process of metastasis. There were nine metastatic tumor samples that existed before the patients received chemotherapy. These samples showed identical p53 mutations as the corresponding primary tumor. This suggests that anticancer drugs rarely induce p53 gene mutations.

Base Sequence↗

Deficiencies of automatic endoscopic reprocessors: a method to achieve high-grade disinfection of endoscopes.

BACKGROUND: We show that disinfection using the automatic endoscopic reprocessor is not complete and propose a method for high-grade disinfection of endoscopes. METHODS: We used an automatic endoscopic reprocessor, Pyser System 83, and 2% glutaraldehyde. After each endoscopic procedure, the endoscopes were divided into three groups. Endoscopes in group A were washed only by the reprocessor. Group B endoscopes were washed by the reprocessor after the connectors were soaked in glutaraldehyde for 5 minutes. The channels, valves, connecting sections of group C endoscopes, and the connectors of the machine were sprayed with glutaraldehyde before machine-washing. Swabs were taken from all 13 parts of each endoscope and machine for microbiologic culture. RESULTS: Six endoscopes were positive, cumulatively, for bacterial contamination in group A. Among group B endoscopes, one remained contaminated. No endoscope was positive in group C. The difference between group A and C was statistically significant (p < .05). CONCLUSIONS: Machine washing by automatic endoscopic reprocessors may not achieve complete disinfection. Additional procedures are necessary. High-grade disinfection of the connectors is critical. Disinfection of the interface between the connectors is important.

Disinfection↗

Delayed remission after thymectomy for myasthenia gravis of the purely ocular type.

Twenty-two cases of purely ocular myasthenia gravis were reviewed to evaluate the long-term effects of thymectomy. Remission rate increased gradually with time (11.8% at 3 years, 23.1% at 5 years, and 33.3% at 10 years). Analysis of factors influencing remission with time showed that patients with short duration of illness attained remission significantly earlier (p = 0.035 at 5-year follow-up). One of 22 patients with purely ocular myasthenia gravis (4.5%) had disease progression. Because ocular myasthenia gravis often progresses to the generalized type and because duration of illness before operation is one of important factors influencing remission, we conclude that thymectomy in the earlier stages of the disease is the preferred treatment for ocular myasthenia gravis, just as for generalized myasthenia gravis.

Adolescent↗

Transactivation of an inducible anti-oxidative stress protein, human thioredoxin by HTLV-I Tax.

Adult T-cell leukemia derived factor (ADF)/human thioredoxin (TRX), which has thiol reducing and radical scavenging activities, plays an essential role on cellular protection against oxidative stress and cell death. TRX itself is induced by various oxidative stress as well as the Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type I (HTLV-I) Tax protein. To investigate the mechanism of this induction, the promoter region of the TRX gene was analyzed. Chloramphenicol acetyltransferase (CAT) reporter constructs containing the TRX promoter sequences responded to the overexpression of the Tax protein, whereas various oxidative agents activated the TRX promoter through a newly identified oxidative responsive element. Moreover, TRX was translocated from the cytoplasm into the nucleus by ultraviolet irradiation, suggesting its possible role on sensing and transducing oxidative signals.

Cell Line, Transformed↗

Cubital tunnel syndrome associated with calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal deposition disease.

Nine patients (11 elbows) presented with cubital tunnel syndrome that was complicated by calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystal deposition disease. Their age ranged from 63 to 86 years, and 8 of the 9 patients were more than 70 years old. X-ray film examination demonstrated the presence of CPPD crystal deposition not only in the elbow but also in the knee, wrist, or spine in all patients. Medial epicondylectomy was performed in 8 patients (9 elbows), while 1 patient with both elbows affected was treated conservatively at his request. Thickening of the ulnar collateral ligament and synovium due to CPPD crystal deposition and degenerative joint changes induced protrusion of the floor of the cubital tunnel, resulting in ulnar neuropathy in these patients. The ulnar nerve was compressed between the protruded floor and fibrous band. Though various causes of cubital tunnel syndrome have been reported, findings of this study indicate that CPPD crystal deposition disease should also be considered a cause of this syndrome.

Aged↗

Role of macrophages in the development of arteritis in MRL strains of mice with a deficit in Fas-mediated apoptosis.

The lpr and gld genes have been shown to encode the Fas antigen deletion mutant and the Fas ligand (FasL) mutant, respectively. An MRL strain of mice bearing the gld gene was observed to spontaneously develop granulomatous arteritis, similar to that in mice bearing the lpr gene, indicating that arteritis in this strain is due to an inefficient Fas-FasL interaction resulting in an incapacity for Fas-mediated apoptosis. The arterial lesions in both strains were characterized by a remarkable perivascular accumulation of activated macrophages bearing Mac-2 antigen, following the infiltration of CD4+ cells, and this resulted in the destruction of the arterial wall. Almost all of these infiltrating cells were Fas-positive, as determined in MRL/gld mice. Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF), which is present at increased levels in MRL/lpr mice, but not in MRL/Mp- +/+ (MRL/+) mice, induced the expression of Mac-2 antigen and Fas antigen on spleen adherent cells of MRL/+ mice. Moreover, continuous infusion of M-CSF into the peritoneal cavity of subcutis of MRL/+ mice induced the release of oxygen radicals of peritoneal macrophages or granuloma formation associated with the massive accumulation of Mac-2+ cells, respectively. These findings suggest that macrophages in these mice, which may be activated by M-CSF and may avoid Fas-mediated apoptosis, play a critical role as effector cells in the destruction of arterial wall.

Animals↗

Laparoscopic transcystic cholangioscopic lithotripsy for common bile duct stones during laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

BACKGROUND AND STUDY AIMS: Following the recent introduction of laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) for cholecystolithiasis, treatment of concomitant common bile duct (CBD) stones has been evaluated by using laparoscopic choledochotomy, a transcystic approach, or by means of endoscopic sphincterotomy (ES) before or after LC. PATIENTS AND METHODS: During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, we attempted lithotripsy of CBD stones using laparoscopic transcystic cholangioscopy with lithotripsy (LTCL), in 70 patients out of 950 laparoscopic cholecystectomies. Preparatory tests included laboratory values, ultrasound, and performance of endoscopic retrograde cholangiography (ERC) with placement of a nasobillary tube (without sphincterotomy). RESULTS: Introduction of the cholangioscope into the CBD was successful in 65 patients (92.9%) and CBD clearance was completely achieved by LTCL alone in 51 (78.5%). The overall success rate was therefore 73%. The remaining 19 cases required postoperative procedures such as extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy without ERC or ES (successful in all). The average hospital stay period was 9.4 days for patients in whom CBD clearance was achieved by LTCL alone. This period did not differ significantly from that of patients who underwent LC alone (8.4) days. The operation time was about 70 minutes longer for the LTCL group (total time 174 minutes on average) than for the LC group (107 minutes). We did not observe any series complications during or after LTCL (mean follow-up period: 34 months). CONCLUSION: LTCL in combination with LC allows shortening of the hospital stay and a swift return to work for patients with CBD stones. This procedure also preserves the function of the sphincter of Oddi, so that the longterm prognosis for patients is likely to be very good.

Adult↗

Cutaneous myiasis due to Dermatobia hominis in Japan.

A 29-year-old man with a furuncle-like lesion brought in a maggot on the next day after his first visit to our clinic. He said it moved out from the eruption spontaneously. He had previously visited Parana and Sao Paulo in Brazil before he noticed the symptom. The maggot was confirmed to be a third instar larva of Dermatobia hominis. Japanese cases of cutaneous myiasis are reviewed.

Adolescent↗

Th1/Th2 response profiles to the major allergens Cry j 1 and Cry j 2 of Japanese cedar pollen.

Cry j 1 and Cry j 2 are known to be the major allergens of Japanese cedar pollen. A comparative study was carried out on the immune responses to stimulation with Cry j 1 and Cry j 2 in 24 symptomatic patients and six nonallergic subjects. In T-cell proliferation assays, mean stimulation indexes (SI) were 10.6 for Cry j 1 and 11.7 for Cry j 2 stimulation, respectively, in the allergic patients. Two of the nonallergic subjects showed strong T-cell proliferation to both allergens, while the remainder did not. All the allergic subjects (17/17) showed high titers of anti-Cry j 1 IgE antibody at a mean value of 165 U/ml, whereas only 64% responded to Cry j 2 with low titers at a mean value of 26 U/ml. Nonallergic subjects did not respond with IgE production. Allergic subjects were further examined for their cytokine production profiles. All allergic subjects tested (16/16) produced high levels of interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) in response to Cry j 1 with a mean value of 918 pg/ml, while only five subjects showed significant elevation of IFN-gamma production in response to Cry j 2 with a mean value of 679 pg/ml. The remainder produced small amounts of IFN-gamma. Cry j 1 induced higher levels of interleukin (IL)-10 gene expression than did Cry j 2 stimulation, while both allergens induced IL-4 expression at a similar level. The IL-12 p35 gene was constitutively expressed, whereas the IL-12 p40 gene expression in Cry j 1-stimulated cells was elevated eightfold over that of nonstimulated cells. Increased expression of the IL-12 p40 gene was negligible in Cry j 2-stimulated cells. Thus, Cry j 1 stimulated mixed features of Th1 and Th2-like responses, while Cry j 2 played a minor role in inducing IgE production and cytokine (IFN-gamma, IL-10, and IL-12) production, except for IL-2 production and strong T-cell proliferative activity. Therefore, it was concluded that Cry j 1 is the more important allergen, and that T-cell proliferation assays do not necessarily reflect the level of allergenicity.

Allergens↗

Immunodominance of seven regions of a major allergen, Cry j 2, of Japanese cedar pollen for T-cell immunity.

The immunodominant regions of the Japanese cedar pollen allergen Cry j 2 for T-cell immunity were determined with whole peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBL) derived from seven allergic patients and three nonallergic subjects. Cry j 2-stimulated T-cell proliferation was inhibited by anti-HLA-DR, but not by anti-HLA-DQ antibody, indicating that the responding T cells recognized the allergen peptides associated with HLA-DR molecules. It was found that seven regions of Cry j 2, i.e., regions corresponding to amino acid numbers 1-26, 70-84, 151-167, 187-203, 252-279, 283-314, and 345-362, were immunodominant for T-cell proliferation. Thus, Cry j 2 bears a limited number of immunodominant regions despite polymorphic features of HLA-DR in the immune system. This suggests the possibility of molecularly designing Cry j 2 antagonists that could downregulate allergic reactions to Japanese cedar pollen.

Case-Control Studies↗

Plasma thrombomodulin: usefulness as a blood access failure marker in hemodialysis patients.

In 144 patients on hemodialysis (76 males and 68 females, median age 55.7 +/- 14.1 years, mean period on dialysis 44.1 +/- 33.3 months), thrombomodulin was determined by enzyme immunoassay prior to initiation of hemodialysis. The results showed that the mean thrombomodulin value of hemodialysis patients was 13.59 +/- 3.63 ng/ml which was significantly higher than the control value (3.20 +/- 0.90 ng/ml). The thrombomodulin values were significantly higher in patients with blood access failure (15.27 +/- 4.45 ng/ml) than in those without (13.11 +/- 3.31 ng/ml), and the rate of blood access failures was also significantly higher in those with thrombomodulin values of 15.0 ng/ml or higher than in those with values < 15.0 ng/ml. It was evident that there is a higher risk of blood access failure in patients with severe systemic vascular endothelial injury, and thrombomodulin is a useful marker of such an injury.

Adult↗