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Dose-response testing with nickel sulphate using the TRUE test in nickel-sensitive individuals. Multiple nickel sulphate patch-test reactions do not cause an 'angry back'.

The aim of this study was to employ the TRUE test assay to confirm the presence or absence of the 'angry back' phenomenon, i.e. that a strong positive patch-test reaction heightens adjacent patch-test response. In addition, we wished to establish the dose-response relationship for nickel sulphate patch tests among nickel-sensitive patients. Seventy-two nickel-sensitive patients, 36 in Odense and 36 in Stockholm, were tested with a 10-step nickel sulphate dilution series (TRUE test) and two placebo patches. The position of the patches was rotated, to provide a balanced spatial distribution of the different concentrations. Readings were performed blind. The results were analysed by means of polynomial multiple-regression methods and a logistic dose-response model. Half the patients (38/72) had a threshold patch-test concentration for nickel sulphate in the range of 3-0.3 microgram/cm2. The 'angry back' phenomenon was not apparent in this study, as the spill-over effect was not statistically significant. Strong reactions to high concentrations of nickel sulphate did not enhance the response to adjacent lower concentrations of nickel sulphate.

Dermatitis, Allergic Contact↗

Evaluation of enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays, an immunofluorescent-antibody test, and two rapid tests (immunochromatographic-dipstick and gel tests) for serological diagnosis of symptomatic and asymptomatic Leishmania infections in dogs.

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs) based on soluble antigens derived from promastigote or amastigote-like stages of Leishmania infantum and on the recombinant rK39 antigen, each in combination with different conjugates [anti-immunoglobulin G1 [IgG1], anti-IgG2, anti-IgG(gamma), and anti-IgG heavy plus light chains], were compared to an immunofluorescent-antibody test (IFAT) and two commercially available rapid test systems (DiaMed-Vet-IT Leish and ID-PaGIA canine leishmaniasis antibody test) for the detection of specific anti-Leishmania antibodies in symptomatic and asymptomatic dogs with proven L. infantum infections. ELISAs based on soluble promastigote and amastigote antigens had very high sensitivities in symptomatic (n = 30; 100%) and asymptomatic dogs (n = 17; 94.1 to 100%), except when combined with the anti-IgG1 conjugate (41.2 to 82.4%). Specificities were high for all combinations (n = 50; 96 to 100%). The rK39 ELISA detected fewer asymptomatic cases (sensitivities, 52.9 to 64.7%) but was highly specific (96 to 100%). The IFAT was 90% sensitive in symptomatic dogs but was significantly less sensitive in asymptomatic cases (29.4%). However, it had an excellent specificity (100%). Test performances of the rapid tests based on the rK39 antigen were comparable to the ELISAs based on the same antigen. ELISAs based on soluble promastigote or amastigote antigens seem to be most suited for the serological diagnosis of canine Leishmania infections in both symptomatic and asymptomatic dogs. IFAT and the rK39 ELISA lack sensitivity in asymptomatic cases but are highly specific. Rapid tests like the rK39 dipstick test or the ID-PaGIA are helpful for confirming clinically suspected cases because of their high specificities in symptomatic animals.

Animals↗

To test or not to test: interest in genetic testing for Alzheimer's disease among middle-aged adults.

Based on a hypothetical scenario positing 100 percent accuracy in test results, we examined interest in genetic testing for Alzheimer's disease (AD) among adult children, 40-60 years of age, who have a living parent with a diagnosis of probable AD (N = 108), and a matched comparison group of persons with no parental history of AD (N = 150). For both groups, planning for the future was the most important reason cited for being tested; lack of good treatment options and concerns about losing health insurance were the most important reasons for not being tested. Hierarchical regression was used to examine the effects of sociodemographic characteristics, subjective perceptions of memory functioning, concerns about having and developing AD, and mastery on interest in being tested. Personal concerns about developing AD and mastery emerged as significant predictors and subsample membership approached significance, although the full model explained just 18 percent of the variance. Because persons in the comparison group were more likely to report an interest in being tested, educational efforts about genetic testing should not be restricted only to family members of persons with a diagnosis of AD.

Adult↗

Comparison between 100-g glucose tolerance test and two other screening tests for gestational diabetes: combined fasting glucose with risk factors and 50-g glucose tolerance test.

CONTEXT AND OBJECTIVE: Lack of consensus about which screening tests to use for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) and difficulties in performing the gold-standard diagnostic test, the 100-g glucose tolerance test (100-g GTT), justify comparison with alternatives. The aim was to compare this with two other screening tests: combined fasting glucose with risk factors (FG + RF) and 50-g GTT. DESIGN AND SETTING: Prospective longitudinal cohort study in the Hospital School of Universidade Federal de Mato Grosso do Sul. METHODS: The three tests were performed independently on 341 pregnant women. Sensitivity (S), specificity (Sp), positive (PPV) and negative (NPV) predictive values, positive (PLR) and negative (NLR) likelihood ratios, and false-positive (FP) and false-negative (FR) rates obtained with FG + RF and 50-g GTT were compared with values from 100-g GTT. The average one-hour post-intake glucose levels (1hPG) with 50-g and 100-g were compared. Students t test was used in the statistical analysis. RESULTS: FG + RF led more pregnant women (53.9%) to diagnostic confirmation than did 50-g GTT (14.4%). The tests were equivalent for S (86.4 and 76.9%), PPV (98.7 and 98.9%), NLR (0.3 and 0.27) and FR (15.4 and 23.1%). Average 1hPG values were similar: 50-g GTT = 106.8 mg/dl and 100-g GTT = 107.5 mg/dl. CONCLUSION: Diagnostic efficiency with simplicity, practicality and low cost make FG + RF more appropriate for screening for GDM. The equivalence of 1hPG allows a new, cheaper and less uncomfortable protocol to be proposed for screening and diagnosing GDM.

Adult↗

Comparison of the metabolic response to a glucose tolerance test and a standardized test meal and the response to serial test meals in normal healthy subjects.

The plasma glucose and insulin response to a standardized meal test breakfast was compared with the time-honored glucose tolerance test in the same normal healthy subjects. The amplitude of glycemic excursion and between-subject variation was less with the more physiologic standardized test meal than with that seen with the glucose tolerance test. The glucose tolerance test's prime function is to amplify any glucose intolerance, thus aiding diagnosis, whereas a standardized meal gives a more clinically relevant metabolic status. The administration of serial test meals during the same day in a smaller group of normal subjects indicated, as seen previously with repeated glucose tolerance tests, a diminishing carbohydrate tolerance during the day.

Adult↗

[Characteristics and limitation of portable bedside swallowing test in elderly with dementia: comparison between the repetitive saliva swallowing test and the simple swallowing provocation test].

Several bedside portable swallowing tests have been advocated for screening for dysphagia. However, the clinical usefulness and limitation of these tests have not been examined in elderly patients with dementia. We performed the repetitive saliva swallowing test (RSST) and the simple swallowing provocation test (SSPT) in 37 elderly inpatients (81.8 +/- 1.2 years old). Simultaneously, cognitive and verbal communication ability were assessed by the Hasegawa Dementia Scale revised version (HDSR) and the Mini-Communication Test (MCT). RSST was completed only in 22 patients (59%), whereas SSPT was successfully completed in all cases. Scores of HDSR and MCT were significantly lower in patients who were unable to cooperate with RSST compared to successful examinees (HDSR: 7 +/- 1 vs 15 +/- 3, p < 0.0; MCT: 47 +/- 8 vs 81 +/- 5, p < 0.01). Dysphagia was detected in 14 patients (64%) by RSST and 5 (14%) by SSPT. Patients with dysphagia showed significantly lower cognitive function (p < 0.05) and verbal communication ability (p < 0.05). In conclusion, RSST is more sensitive to detect dysphagia in elderly patients; however, compliance with RSST is strongly influenced by the patient's cognitive function and verbal communication ability. Comprehensive geriatric assessment will help to choose an alternative test for dysphagia such as SSPT which is more specific test for aspiration pneumonia.

Aged↗

The tap test--an accurate first-line test for fetal lung maturity testing.

OBJECTIVE: To determine the accuracy of near-patient and laboratory-based fetal lung maturity tests in predicting the need for neonatal ventilation. DESIGN: A prospective descriptive study. SUBJECTS: One hundred high-risk obstetric patients where confirmation of fetal lung maturity would initiate delivery. METHODS: Fetal weight estimation, placental maturity grading, and amniocentesis were performed. The investigators examined the amniotic fluid visually, and performed the tap test and shake test. Laboratory technicians estimated the lecithin-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio, determined the presence of a phosphatidyl glycerol (PG) band on gel electrophoresis, and the optical density at 650 nm. Neonates delivered within 1 week of amniocentesis were included in the analysis. The primary end-point was the ability of the lung maturity tests to predict the need for neonatal ventilation. RESULTS: Twelve of 100 neonates required ventilation. The tap test and optical density (OD) shift at 650 nm predicted the need for neonatal ventilation with the greatest accuracy. CONCLUSION: The tap test is a rapid, easy and accurate predictor of the need for neonatal ventilation. The OD shift at 650 nm is the laboratory-based test with the greatest accuracy in our setting.

Amniotic Fluid↗

Presymptomatic testing for Huntington's disease by linkage and by direct mutation analysis: comparison of uptake of testing and characteristics of test applicants.

In Edinburgh, we have compared presymptomatic testing by linkage and by direct mutation analysis by investigating the demand for testing and characteristics of test applicants. Annual new requests for the direct test (DT) are now double the peak with the linkage test (LT) but only 6% individuals have requested re-testing. DT applicants were older with a smaller proportion having lived with an affected relative that LT applicants. This was because many were relatives of newly diagnosed first known cases in their family. This may also explain why DT applicants were less likely to expect a negative result and more likely to be uncertain about their risk. A greater proportion of DT applicants first heard about the test from relatives or their GP than LT applicants who were more likely to hear from Genetic Centre. The demand for follow-up by the Geneticist/Genetic Nurse was much less for DT than for LT applicants largely due to the support offered by the HD Advisors.

Adult↗

Testing the test--why pursue a better test for Huntington disease?

In 1993, the gene mutation for Huntington disease (HD) was identified and testing became possible with a reliability of >99%, without the need for co-operation of relatives. In 1997, a systematic information program offered the mutation retest to individuals who had earlier received a linkage test result for HD, which has a residual uncertainty of 1-9%. The characteristics of 129 individuals tested by linkage analysis for HD are reported on, as well as the reasons for their reassessment by mutation testing. Three groups were compared: (1) people who were retested between 1993 and 1997, before this study had started, (2) people who were retested after we provided information, and (3) persons who refrained from retesting. Nearly half of the linkage-tested individuals were retested, with the exception of noncarriers with a residual risk of 1 or 2%. Of them, less than one out of five were retested. Carriers with a hopeful view on the future (BHS) and a better sense of well-being (GHQ) were more likely to have the retest. Female carriers were also more likely to have the retest before we contacted them. Noncarriers who were retested were more anxious (HADS) than noncarriers who refrained from the retest. Retestees were younger at the time of testing. No risk reversals were revealed by this study.

Adult↗

[Evaluation of conventional and new generation tests for testing the humeral response to Mycoplasma pneumoniae antigens in natural infection in humans. III Use of ELISA, complement fixation and immunoelectroprecipitation tests in diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections--comparative analysis].

Agreement of the results of determining antibodies against M. pneumoniae was evaluated by the ELISA, complement fixation test (CFT) and immunoelectroprecipitation test (IEPT) in serum samples from 685 persons including 571 patients with respiratory tract infections and 114 clinically healthy subjects. Assuming the CF to be the reference test, a very high correlation exceeding 0.95 was found, on the basis of the calculated correlation coefficient, between the results of the CF and IEP tests and the CFT and ELISA in all immunoglobulin classes. The highest sensitivity (92.3%) was displayed by the ELISA in relation to the CF test when determining mycoplasmas antibodies of IgM and IgA + G + M classes and slightly lower sensitivity by the IEPT and ELISA when determining of IgG (83% and 82.1% respectively). The lowest sensitivity was displayed by the ELISA when determining mycoplasmal antibodies of IgA class (53.4%). Specificity of both the tests was high and exceeded 92%. Highest agreement of CFT and ELISA was obtained when detecting mycoplasmal antibodies in diagnostically significant titer in the M and A + G + M immunoglobulin classes (> 92%) while lowest agreement, although statistically significant, was obtained when detecting IgA antibodies (74.7%).

Adolescent↗

Vestibular testing by electrical stimulation in patients with unilateral vestibular deafferentation: galvanic evoked myogenic responses testing versus galvanic body sway testing.

OBJECTIVE: To investigate the agreement of a lesion site as indicated by two different vestibular tests with electrical stimulation, galvanic body sway testing (GBST) and galvanic evoked myogenic responses (galvanic vestibular evoked myogenic potential; galvanic VEMP) testing, in patients with unilateral vestibular deafferentation. METHODS: Nineteen patients with unilateral vestibular deafferentation were studied, and the criteria for patient selection were as follows: (1) absence of a caloric response to ice water on the affected side in a supine position, and (2) absence of VEMP to 95 dBnHL clicks on the affected side. We assessed the postural response of the subjects to long duration galvanic stimulation (1 mA, 5 s) by measuring the lateral displacement at the center of foot pressure with a cathode electrode on the forehead, and an anode electrode on the mastoid (GBST). We also recorded the electromyographic (EMG) activities of the sternocleidomastoid muscle (SCM) to short duration galvanic stimulation (3 mA, 1 ms) (galvanic VEMP) with a cathode electrode on the mastoid, and an anode electrode on the forehead. RESULTS: In 18 of the 19 patients, the lesion site indicated by GBST was identical to that indicated by galvanic VEMP. Fourteen patients had abnormal results in both tests while 4 patients had normal results in both tests. One patient with acoustic neuroma had normal results in GBST but abnormal results in galvanic VEMP. CONCLUSIONS: These results suggest that electrical stimulation in these two tests stimulates the same area of the peripheral vestibular afferent system, although the duration of stimulation was different, and that the estimate of the lesion site indicated by these tests in patients with complete or nearly complete unilateral vestibular damages is reliable. SIGNIFICANCE: These results suggest that short-duration galvanic stimulation as well as long-duration galvanic stimulation stimulates the vestibular system at the same level.

Adult↗

Articulation functions and test-retest performance of normal-hearing children on three speech discrimination tests: WIPI, PBK-50, and NV Auditory Test No. 6.

This study investigates the performance of normal-hearing children on three types of speech discrimination tasks: (1) a multiple-choice, closed-message set test requiring no verbal response, the WIPI; (2) an open-message set test for adults, Northwestern University Aue talker were administrated to 60 normal-hearing children, divided qually between the ages three-and-one-half, five-and-one-half, seven-and-one-half, nine-and-one-half, and 11-and-one-half years. The number of tests and sensations levels administered varied by age. The WIPI test yielded the highest discrimination scores, the PBK-50 was intermediate, and the NU-6 was most difficult. A small number of items on the WIPI test accounted for a large percentage of the errors. For three-and-one-half years olds, the WIPI appears to be the instrument of choice. For children aged five-and-one-half years, both the WIPI and the PBK-50 appear to be appropriate clinical tools. Children aged seven-and-one-half scored similar to children aged nine-and-one-half on the WIPI and to children aged nine-and-one-half and 11 and-one-half on the PBK-50 and NU-6. Test-retest differences were small on all three tests.

Audiometry↗

Comparison of a complement resistance test, a chicken embryo lethality test, and the chicken lethality test for determining virulence of avian Escherichia coli.

Results with four pathogenic avian Escherichia coli isolates and one avirulent isolate in a complement resistance test, a chicken lethality test, and a chicken embryo lethality test were compared. Results of the complement resistance test with these isolates were highly correlated to results of the chicken lethality test of virulence. The chicken embryo test yielded results that were of a medium positive correlation with the chicken lethality results. The results of the complement resistance and chicken embryo lethality tests were highly correlated.

Animals↗

[Investigation of Cushing's syndrome. The diagnostic value of the dexamethasone suppression test, the metopirone test and the CRF test].

We describe thirty-one patients with Cushing's syndrome, with the object of evaluating the relative merit of the Dexamethasone suppression test, Metyrapone test and Corticotrophin Releasing Factor (CRF) test in classifying the syndrome. Bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia (Cushing's disease) was present in sixteen patients. Three had bilateral macrodular hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex, six had adrenocortical adenoma, four had adrenocortical carcinoma, and two patients presented ectopic ACTH-syndrome. The diagnosis was surgically verified in every case. The Metyrapone test was found to give the safest classification in patients with Cushing's syndrome. The Dexamethasone test will diagnose Mb. Cushing reliably when suppression of serum cortisol is present following the large dose of Dexamethasone, but failure to suppress does not exclude the diagnosis. The CRF test is easy to perform and distinguished reliably between Mb. Cushing and other causes of the syndrome in eight out of ten patients in whom it was performed. Outpatient examination including the CRF test and CT-scanning of the pituitary and adrenal glands is advocated as a preliminary step in the classification of biochemically and clinically suspected cases of Cushing's syndrome.

17-Hydroxycorticosteroids↗

Comparison of intradermal dilutional testing with the Multi-Test II applicator in testing for mold allergy.

OBJECTIVES: To compare and correlate wheal size using the Multi-Test II applicator with the endpoint obtained by intradermal dilutional testing (IDT) for common mold allergens. To validate the safety and efficacy of modified quantitative testing (MQT) for determining immunotherapy starting doses. STUDY DESIGN AND SETTING: Prospective study of 86 subjects with Multi-Test II and IDT for 6 common mold antigens. RESULTS: There was 84% concordance between IDT results and the results expected from the MQT method. When IDT and MQT results differed, the MQT algorithm predicted a safer endpoint for starting immunotherapy in all but 2 cases. CONCLUSION: The correlation between Multi-Test II and IDT is not strong enough to infer IDT endpoint from Multi-Test II results for molds. MQT is nearly as effective as formal IDT in determining endpoint. SIGNIFICANCE: MQT appears to be a safe method for determining starting doses for immunotherapy with fungal allergens.

Adult↗

[Vibratory test and head shaking test and caloric test: a series of 87 patients].

OBJECTIVES: The purpose of this work was to study the complementary contribution of the vibratory test (VT), the head shaking test (HST) and the caloric test (CT) in patients with total or partial vestibular lesions. We investigated the usefulness of these three tests, particularly the high frequency VT, for multiple-frequency vestibular study. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The study cohort included 40 patients with total vestibular lesions (TVL) and 47 patients with partial vestibular lesions (PVL), the latter group including 21 patients with recent Menière disease, 15 with sudden-onset loss of vestibular function (SLVF), 5 with tumors of the cerebropontine angle, and six with diverse conditions. The HST protocol was 2 Hz stimulation (head speed greater than 180 degrees /s). The VT used an ABC 100 Hz vibrator operating at 0.8 mm and an S stimulator delivering frequencies between 30 and 115 Hz during 10 s stimulations. An LIVN-2 videoscope (biodigital France) and a 2D and 3D videonystagmograph (synapsis France) were used for the recordings. Mastoid stimulation was used for the VT. RESULTS: For the 40 patients with TVL, the three tests (VT, CT, HST) were in agreement for all frequencies. The nystagmus produced by the VT demonstrated a horizontal component in 96% of the patients, a vertical component in 47%, and a rotational component in 30%. For the 47 patients with PVL, 9 of the 21 with Menière disease had a normal CT. Conversely, nystagmus was triggered by the HST in 10 and by the VT in 6. Nystagmus triggered by the VT and the HST was non-coherent with opposing direction in two-thirds of the patients. In certain cases, the VT demonstrated a variation in the direction of the nystagmus depending on the stimulation frequency, 30 or 100 Hz. Among the 15 patients with SLVF, the HST triggered nystagmus in only 5 and the VT in 14 (5 patients had nystagmus non-coherent with the side of the lesion). For the 5 patients with tumors of the cerebropontine angle (small neuroma or meningioma), the CT was negative in all 5, the HST was negative in 3, and the VT demonstrated lesional nystagmus in 4. Looking at the overall results, in the 47 patients with PVL (including 21 cases of Menière disease outside an acute phase) the CT demonstrated significant hypovalence in 70%, while the nystagmus demonstrated asymmetrical response in 44% when triggered by the HST and in 85% when triggered by the VT. CONCLUSION: The VT is less invasive than the HST, particularly for elderly patients with osteoarthritis. It would be interesting in patients with bilateral tympanic perforation since the CT cannot be performed. It can reveal vestibular asymmetry. For unilateral partial vestibular lesions, the VT triggers nystagmus more often than the HST. It is particularly sensitive between acute episodes in patients with Menière disease. A discordance between the direction of the nystagmus triggered by the HST and the VT is particularly frequent in patients with labyrinthine hydropsis who exibit a normal CT. In certain cases of apparent bilateral areflexia to the CT for low frequencies, the VT can disclose vestibular asymmetry for high frequencies. The nystagmus triggered by the VT begins and ends with stimulation with little or no tiring. The nystagmus triggered by the HST occurs after the stimulation and depends on the frequency of the head shaking. Thus, the HST (2 Hz and its harmonics), the VT (100 Hz) and the CT (<0.01 Hz) all make significant contributions to multiple-frequency analysis of vestibular function, particularly useful in patients with partial vestibular lesions. These tests probably solicit cells with different topographies or different frequency sensitivities.

Aged↗

Validation of the SOS/umu test using test results of 486 chemicals and comparison with the Ames test and carcinogenicity data.

The present study gives a comprehensive update of all umu genotoxicity assay results published so far. The available data of 486 chemicals investigated with the umu test are compared with the Ames test (274 compounds) as well as rodent carcinogenicity data (179 compounds). On the whole, there is good agreement between the umu test and the Ames test results, with a concordance of about 90%. The umu test was able to detect 86% of the Ames mutagens, while the Ames test (using at least 5 strains) detected 97% of the umu positive compounds. The elimination of TA102 from the set of Ames tester strains reduced the percentage of detectable umu genotoxins from 97 to 86%. The agreement between carcinogenesis and umu response was 65%, which is comparable to earlier studies concerning rodent carcinogenesis and Salmonella mutagenesis. The present compilation of umu results provides a database that can be used for the comparison of the SOS-inducing activity of chemicals and their mutagenicity, respectively, carcinogenicity. The results presented here clearly demonstrate that a chemical which induces the expression of the umu operon can be regarded a rodent carcinogen with a high degree of certainty (93%).

Animals↗