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[Muscle relaxants for kidney transplantation. A comparison between vecuronium and atracurium].

A total of 26 patients with end-stage renal failure were assigned randomly to receive either atracurium (A) or vecuronium (V) for intra-operative relaxation during kidney transplantation. Following the induction of balanced anesthesia an initial bolus dose of A 0,5 mg/kg body weight (BW) or V 0,1 mg/kg BW was administered. Relaxation was maintained by repeated doses of A 0,1 mg/kg BW or V 0,02 mg/kg BW whenever the twitch height (T1) recovered to 20% of the control value. Neuromuscular function was monitored throughout using the train-of-four twitch technique. There were no significant differences in time of onset (A: 219 +/- 87 s, V: 206 +/- 70 s), initial clinical duration (T1 = 0% to T1 = 20%; A: 39 +/- 12 min, V 39 +/- 8 min) or recovery index (A: 19 +/- 6 min, V: 22 +/- 7 min). The clinical duration (T1 = 20% to T1 = 20%) was significantly different for A, with 27 +/- 9 min than for V, with 32 +/- 7 min (P less than 0.05, Wilcoxon-Mann-Whitney U-Test; all values means +/- standard deviation). Reversal of relaxants was mandatory according to electromyographic and clinical criteria in only one patient in the A group but in 5 in the V group (P less than 0.05, Fisher's exact test). We conclude that A might be more suitable in patients with renal insufficiency and that monitoring of neuromuscular transmission is highly valuable in this risk group.

Adult↗

Validation and comparison of indexes for fibrosis and cirrhosis prediction in chronic hepatitis C patients: proposal for a pragmatic approach classification without liver biopsies.

Noninvasive indexes have been developed to predict fibrosis staging. The aim of this study was to assess the diagnostic accuracy of these indexes in comparison with liver histology in hepatitis C virus (HCV)-infected patients. A total of 235 consecutive patients with HCV infection from the Fibropaca multicentre independent study were included in this paper. FibroTest (FT), aspartate aminotransferase to platelet ratio index (APRI) and Forns score were assessed in the cohort and compared with liver histology performed on the same day. The main end point was the area under characteristic curves (AUCs) for the diagnosis of significant fibrosis (F2-F4) and cirrhosis (F4) by the METAVIR classification. Mean age was 46 (+/-11) years, 55% were males, 42% (n = 99) had significant fibrosis (F2-F4) and 7% (n = 16) had cirrhosis (F4). For the diagnosis of significant fibrosis, respective AUCs of FT, APRI and Forns score were 0.81 (95% confidence interval: 0.76-0.86), 0.71 (0.67-0.79) and 0.76 (0.70-0.82); for cirrhosis prognosis, AUCs of FT and APRI were 0.82 (0.77-0.87) and 0.81 (0.76-0.86) (AUCs not significantly different). Using each index independently, all patients were classified by FT, 214 (91%) patients were classified by APRI and 129 (55%) by Forns score. There were significantly more cases of discordances between APRI and liver biopsy than between FT or Forns score and liver biopsy (P < 0.05). Performing all scores (FT, Forns and APRI) without liver biopsy allowed fibrosis to be well evaluated in 191 patients (81.3%), including patients with FT failure. Liver biopsy remained mandatory to evaluate fibrosis in 44 patients (18.7%). Our study shows that performing all the tests and liver biopsy improves the diagnostic accuracy for liver fibrosis in chronic hepatitis C patients without patent comorbidities. The combination of all tests with liver biopsy allowed 225/235 (96%) patients to be correctly classified. The combination of all tests without liver biopsy allowed 191/235 (81.3%) patients to be correctly classified; liver biopsy remained mandatory in some patients (18.7%).

Adult↗

The "tamponade test" in the management of massive postpartum hemorrhage.

OBJECTIVE: Massive postpartum hemorrhage is a major cause of pregnancy-related death in the United States. To date there is no diagnostic test to identify those women with intractable hemorrhage who will need surgery. Delay in making this decision can be catastrophic. The successful use of the inflated stomach balloon of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube as a therapy for obstetric hemorrhage has been reported previously. Using the insertion of the Sengstaken-Blakemore tube as a diagnostic test has not been reported. An inflated Sengstaken-Blakemore balloon catheter creates tamponade and identifies those who will or will not need surgery. This is the basis for the "tamponade test." We evaluated the tamponade test in the management of women with massive postpartum hemorrhage. METHODS: In this prospective study, 16 cases of intractable postpartum hemorrhage were managed by the tamponade test. All 16 women had persistent bleeding despite the maximal and optimal application of conservative measures. Their condition deteriorated, such that surgical intervention was considered mandatory. It was at this predefined end point that the tamponade test was applied. RESULTS: Fourteen (87.5%) had a positive tamponade test result and therefore did not require surgery. Two (12.5%) had a negative test result and underwent laparotomy. CONCLUSION: This diagnostic test rapidly identifies those patients with postpartum hemorrhage who will require a laparotomy. Even when results are positive, life-threatening hemorrhage is arrested and time is also allowed to correct any consumptive coagulopathy.

Adult↗

Allergic contact dermatitis from iodine preparations: a conundrum.

Iodine preparations are widely used antiseptics, yet limited information exists on their irritant potential and threshold for diagnostic patch testing. We examine this issue by using iodine in different preparations and concentrations. A total of 24 fair-skinned, healthy volunteers without a history of iodine allergy, ranging in age from 18 to 65 years (mean age 49.5 + 10.7 SD), were recruited. Concentrations of 0.5%, 1%, 5% and 10% iodine in petrolatum (pet.), 0.5%, 0.75% and 1% iodine in 70% isopropyl alcohol (IPA) and 1%, 5%, 7.5% and 10% of povidone-iodine (PVP-I) were applied for 2 days to the intrascapular area on the back or to the volar forearm between cubital fossa and wrist using Finn Chambers on Scanpor. Test sites were read 2 days (D2) and 4 days (D4) after patch application. Skin reactions were graded according to the following scheme: 0 = no reaction, + = questionable erythema, 1 = definite erythema, 2 = erythema and induration and 3 = vesiculation. Mild-to-moderate reactions (+ to 2) were observed in 75% of the subjects patched with 5% iodine in pet. at 2-4 days after application. Almost all subjects reacted to 10% iodine at D2 and D4, with 65% exhibiting erythema and induration or vesiculation. A large number (33%) of the subjects developed some reactions to the low concentration (0.5%) of iodine in 70% IPA at D2. Vesicles were seen in 54% of the subjects patched with 1% iodine in 70% IPA at D4. Only 1 subject reacted to 7.5% and 10% PVP-I. Iodine can be irritant to normal skin in pet. and in 70% IPA. Pet. possibly enhances skin contact with iodine, thus increasing its irritant capacity. Alcohol removes sebum from the skin surface, and it might increase iodine penetration into the skin, causing a higher degree of irritation. PVP-I is relatively non-irritant, because its iodine is complexed in an iodophor. For diagnostic patch testing, we recommend using iodine at less than 1% in pet. and at less than 0.5% in 70% IPA. For PVP-I, 10% appears non-irritant. With the variation in patch-test irritant response, interpretation of the patch-test response in the light of clinical history is mandatory.

2-Propanol↗

Evaluation of the concomitant use of two different EIA tests for HIV screening in blood banks.

OBJECTIVE: In 1998, the Brazilian Ministry of Health made it mandatory for all blood banks in the country to screen donated blood for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) concomitantly using two different enzyme immunoassay (EIA) tests. Concerned with the best use of available resources, our objective with this study was to evaluate the usefulness of conducting two EIA screening tests instead of just one. METHODS: We analyzed data from 1999 through 2001 obtained by testing 698 191 units of donated blood using two EIA HIV screening tests concomitantly at the Pro-Blood Foundation/Blood Center of São Paulo (Fundação Pró-Sangue/Hemocentro de São Paulo), which is a major blood center in the city of São Paulo, Brazil. All samples reactive in at least one of the two EIA tests were submitted for confirmation by a Western blot (WB) test, and the persons who had donated those samples were also asked to return and provide a follow-up sample. RESULTS: Out of the 698 191 blood units that were donated, 2 718 of them (0.4%) had to be discarded because they were reactive to at least one of the EIA tests. There were two WB-positive donation samples that were reactive in only one HIV EIA screening test. On their follow-up samples, both donors tested WB-negative. These cases were considered false positive results at screening. Of the 2 718 donors who were asked to return and provide a follow-up sample, 1 576 of them (58%) did so. From these 1 576 persons, we found that there were two individuals who had been reactive to only one of the two EIA screening tests and who had also been negative on the WB at screening but who were fully seroconverted on the follow-up sample. We thus estimated that, in comparison to the use of a single EIA screening test, the use of two EIA screening tests would detect only one extra sample out of 410 700 units of blood. CONCLUSIONS: Our data do not support the use of two different, concomitant EIA screening tests for HIV. The great majority of HIV-positive donors have already seroconverted and will be detected using only a single EIA screening test. Only persons who are going through the process of seroconversion may be missed by using a single EIA test and detected using two EIAs for screening. To screen out these individuals and decrease the residual risk of HIV transmission from the blood donated in our center, the use of other techniques, such as nucleic acid testing (NAT) or a p24 antigen assay, would be more effective.

AIDS Serodiagnosis↗

Genetic testing for polyposis: practical and ethical aspects.

The three autosomal dominant inherited polyposis syndromes, familial adenomatous polyposis, juvenile polyposis, and Peutz-Jeghers polyposis predispose to colorectal cancer as does hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer syndrome. Uncovering the genetic background of these four cancer traits provides the possibility for genetic testing of the family members of an affected patient. Before testing identification of the underlying family specific pathogenic mutation is mandatory. This is possible in about 60% to 95% of families. Endoscopic surveillance can be safely discontinued in mutation negative family members and surveillance or prophylactic surgery can be targeted to mutation positive members alone. Testing requires genetic counselling and written informed consent to prevent misunderstanding and to minimise untoward effects such as anxiety. Permanent surveillance and adequate prophylactic treatment for all mutation positive subjects and families is best ensured in national or regional polyposis registries with the capacity to take care of long term follow up from generation to generation.

Adenomatous Polyposis Coli↗

Screening of angiogenesis inhibitors by modified tumor-induced angiogenesis (TIA) test in lung cancer.

Aberrant angiogenesis-the new vessels formation is a mandatory event in the process of tumor growth and expansion. Studies on mechanisms involved in tumor-induced angiogenesis (TIA) and on its possible inhibitors are needed in order to introduce in future new methods of tumor treatment. The aim of our study was to determine the usefulness of the modified cutaneous TIA (mice without immunosuppression) test for screening in vivo of the angiogenesis modifiers. In both models (classical and modified TIA) we demonstrated comparable angiogenesis activity following human lung cells inoculation and similar degree of neovascularization response inhibition caused by theobromine. We reported that in modified TIA model preincubation with theobromine significantly suppressed angiogenic potential of human lung cancer cells as well as the ability of those cells to produce proangiogenic cytokine-bFGF.

Adenocarcinoma↗

[Neuromuscular disorders - assessment of the respiratory muscles].

Involvement of respiratory muscles is a nearly constant feature of neuromuscular disorders, leading to respiratory failure. A careful respiratory follow up adapted to the variable time course of each disease is therefore mandatory. As the first step, a systematic clinical evaluation is essential to detect the subtle respiratory symptoms and signs related to respiratory muscle failure. Dyspnea and orthopnea are often late findings in patients with a usually severe functional impairment due to peripheral muscle weakness. Nocturnal respiratory events (obstructive sleep apnea syndrome and hypoventilation) are strongly suggested by daytime hypersomnolence and frequent morning headaches. Physical evaluation is essential to detect accessory muscle recruitment, supine abdominal paradox, and encumbrance of upper or lower airways. Vital capacity (VC) is the most classical lung function test. The major limitation of spirometry is its poor sensitivity to detect a moderate inspiratory muscle weakness. Supine VC may improve the detection of diaphragmatic involvement. Peak expiratory flow during cough (cough PEF) gives an overall evaluation of cough efficiency, values below 160 to 270 L/min suggesting poor airway clearance. Arterial blood gases are performed in case of clinical signs, significant deterioration of lung function tests, or sleep desaturations. Hypercapnia is weakly related to lung function results in patients with Steinert dystrophy and those with bulbar involvement. A specific evaluation of respiratory muscle strength is mandatory, as these tests are both sensitive and highly prognostic. Possible discrepancies (particularly in bulbar patients) between maximal inspiratory pressure (PImax) and sniff nasal inspiratory pressure (SNIP) justify to perform both measurements and to select the highest pressure. A maximal expiratory pressure (PEmax) below 45 cm H2O may indicate a compromised cough efficiency but the correlation with cough PEF may be poor. A screening nocturnal oxymetry is useful to detect sleep apneas and hypoventilation. Criteria defining significant desaturations remain however controversial. Suspicion of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome on clinical grounds or oxymetry findings should be confirmed by a conventional polysomnography.

Cough↗

[Limits of immunoserologic and molecular diagnosis of hepatitis C].

Hepatitis C is the most common cause of post-transfusion hepatitis, as well as of the viral chronic liver disease in the western world. However since it is even more often asymptomatic than HBV, this is not truly recognized. The detection of hepatitis C can only rely on serological and virological methods and require their extensive use in screening programs. Following the molecular identification characterisation of HCV, it became possible to detect virus specific antibodies. The first generation Elisas were limited in their scope and have been replaced by second and third generation tests with better sensitivity and specificity. These assays detect antibodies to several sets of HCV protein including the C22 core, the C33 and C100, which correspond to the non structural regions (NS3 and NS4 respectively). More recently, NS5 proteins have also been added and synthetic peptides have replaced some of the recombinant proteins used initially. In spite of improved sensitivity and specificity, last generation Elisas still require confirmation by supplemental assays which can be of different types (immunoblot or combined Elisas) and include sets of structural and non structural recombinant proteins or peptides. New tests are needed to improve sensitivity and proficiency of this mandatory confirmation procedure. It is unclear at this stage whether the dogma inherited from HIV to request two sets of reactive antibodies will be also warranted by experience in HCV infection. The biggest limitation of present HCV tests is the delayed appearance of anti-HCV following primary infection. Even more worrisome is the fact that 10% of chronic infection with liver disease still remain seronegative, despite circulating HCV RNA in serum and/or liver as well as expressing HCV antigen demonstrable in liver tissue by immunostaining. Such a proportion is even more common in settings with immune deficiencies including organ transplantation and HIV infection. DNA amplification methods, such as PCR or others, must be used in order to demonstrate HCV RNA in combination with reverse transcription steps. This new powerful technology must be however applied under stringent quality control procedures and cannot be yet considered for screening or routine diagnosis although it can detect viremia as early as a week after exposure and help to monitor interferon treatment. During acute hepatitis, the delay in the appearance of anti-HCV hampers acute phase diagnosis. The early detection of HCV RNA in peripheral blood, confirms the diagnosis and opens up therapeutic possibilities. In chronic hepatitis, the diagnosis of seronegative forms may only be resolved by PCR. Moreover, the presence of HCV RNA in peripheral blood represents the only marker of on going viral replication and coincides with the severity of liver damage. During treatment with interferon, the follow up of HCV RNA sequences makes it possible to monitor its efficacy. The search for HCV RNA sequences directly in liver tissue shows that HCV may replicate in the liver in the absence of viremia. The presence of HCV RNA in the liver and the serum of liver transplanted patients is essential for the etiological diagnosis and management of hepatitis and bone marrow failure occurring after transplantation. Epidemiological study using PCR is a major tool in documenting vertical transmission between mother and child. Finally, PCR is important for the analysis of the HCV genome. Thus, in France there are at least three main strains, one close to the US prototype, the other close to the Japanese strain, possibly responsible for a more severe illness, and a third one distinct from the previous two. Two major HCV genotypes, F1 and F2, corresponding to HCV type I and II (USA prototype and Japanese) with prevalence of 45% and 55% respectively, were found in France. F1 infected patients were younger and more often male than F2 group. Nine of 28 patients in F1 genotype infected group had history of drug abuse but none i

Antibodies, Viral↗

Vision screening of preverbal children with Teller acuity cards.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the modified Teller visual acuity test as a mass screening tool for testing visual acuity in infants and preverbal children. DESIGN: Prospective case series. PARTICIPANTS: A total of 1126 healthy children undergoing mandatory examination at the Mother and Child Health Center. INTERVENTION: Visual acuity was tested by the modified Teller visual acuity test. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Visual acuity was measured in all children. Clinical evaluation was performed in children who failed the Teller acuity test and in a control group. RESULTS: Visual acuity was below the normal range in 5% of the children. In the study group referred for complete eye examination, there were 9% false-negative and 44% false-positive results. In the age range of 12 to 17 months, false-negative and false-positive results were obtained in 5.6% and 50% of the children, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: The Teller acuity card procedure can be used for vision screening in preverbal children. Testing was associated with a high rate of false-positive results.

Child, Preschool↗

Effect of mandatory parental notification on adolescent girls' use of sexual health care services.

CONTEXT: Mandatory parental notification for adolescents to obtain prescribed contraceptives is a controversial issue. Recently, legislation that would prohibit prescribed contraceptives for adolescents without parental involvement was introduced in 10 states and the US Congress. OBJECTIVE: To determine the effect of mandatory parental notification for prescribed contraceptives on use of sexual health care services by adolescent girls. DESIGN, SETTING, AND PARTICIPANTS: Girls younger than 18 years and seeking services at all 33 Planned Parenthood family planning clinics in Wisconsin (n = 1118) were surveyed during the spring of 1999. A response rate of 85% was achieved, yielding a sample of 950 girls. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Percentages of girls who reported that they would stop using all sexual health care services, delay testing or treatment for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), or discontinue using specific (but not all) services because of parental notification. RESULTS: Fifty-nine percent (n = 556) indicated they would stop using all sexual health care services, delay testing or treatment for HIV or other STDs, or discontinue use of specific (but not all) sexual health care services if their parents were informed that they were seeking prescribed contraceptives. Eleven percent indicated they would discontinue or delay STD tests or treatment, even though the survey made it clear that mandatory parental notification would occur only for prescribed contraceptives. Analyses comparing girls of different ages and races and from urban vs rural clinics showed that, although the 17-year-olds and African American girls were significantly less likely to stop using sexual health care services with mandatory parental notification, roughly half of the 17-year-olds (56%) and African American girls (49%) indicated that they would stop using all sexual health care services, delay testing or treatment for HIV or other STDs, or discontinue use of specific (but not all) services with mandatory parental notification. CONCLUSION: Mandatory parental notification for prescribed contraceptives would impede girls' use of sexual health care services, potentially increasing teen pregnancies and the spread of STDs.

Adolescent↗

Feasibility study for a microchip-based approach for noninvasive prenatal diagnosis of genetic diseases.

Fetal DNA in maternal plasma may represent a source of genetic material for prenatal noninvasive diagnosis of genetic diseases. We evaluated a cohort of physiological pregnancies to determine if fetal DNA can be retrieved at any gestational week in sufficient quantity to be analyzed with advanced mutation detection technologies. We performed fetal DNA quantification by real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) on the SRY gene in 356 women sampled from 6 to 40 gestational weeks. Fetal DNA was retrieved at any week. All female fetuses were correctly identified. In 5 of 188 (2.6%) male-bearing pregnancies, no amplification was obtained. For noninvasive testing, complete clearance of fetal DNA after delivery is mandatory. Long-term persistence was not detected in women with previous sons or abortions. These findings confirm that maternal plasma may represent the optimal source of fetal genetic material. For noninvasive diagnosis of genetic diseases, we evaluated microchip technology. The detection limit for a minority allele determined by diluting a mutated DNA into a wild-type plasma sample was 5 genome equivalents, indicating that the test might be applied to the identification of paternally inherited fetal alleles in maternal plasma. The addition of peptide nucleic acids (PNAs) to either the PCR reaction or the chip hybridization mixture allowed approximately 50% inhibition of wild-type allele signals.

Adult↗

Chronic autoimmune thyroid disease.

A total of 67 patients with chronic autoimmune thyroid disease were followed, mainly as outpatients, for a period of a few months to over 15 years. The diagnosis was euthyroidism (n = 16, 23.8%), subclinical hypothyroidism (n = 20, 29.8%), primary hypothyroidism (n = 28, 41.7%) or hashitoxicosis (n = 3, 4.47%). Patients with goiters fit Hashimoto's original description of "struma lymphomatosa". The diagnosis was made on clinical grounds and the usual laboratory hormonal tests. Histological examination was carried out at surgery or by fine needle aspiration in 35 patients (52.2%), and a clinical diagnosis was made in 32 (47.7%). Three patients had juvenile Hashimoto's thyroiditis. Most patients were in the fourth, fifth or sixth decade (64.8%), and of these 12 (18%) had subclinical hypothyroidism, which should be suspected when thyrotropin (TSH) is twice the upper normal limit. In these cases thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) testing and evaluation of anti-thyroglobulin antibodies (TgAb) and anti-microsomal antigen antibodies (MsAb) are mandatory. Hypothyroidism with few symptoms develops insidiously in young or elderly patients; the most sensitive test is TSH assay in conjunction with tests for TgAb and MsAb. L-thyroxine administration may be harmful in older patients with late diagnosed primary hypothyroidism. Thyroid supplementation is suggested for patients with subclinical hypothyroidism if TSH values are above 10 mU/L; otherwise they should be followed up annually, as should patients with positive thyroid autoantibodies who are still euthyroid.

Age Factors↗

[Which preoperative tests in ambulatory surgery?].

Anaesthesia for ambulatory surgery implies a strict selection of patients. Screening tests are non specific, compared to these ordered for in-patients. However, detailed preoperative evaluation is mandatory for ambulatory care to function correctly. Many studies conclude that 60% of routine screening tests are of no value: no proven benefit in either anaesthetic management or in the detection of pathologies which might interfere with anaesthesia has been shown with systematic preoperative examinations in asymptomatic subjects (adults or children). The detection of an asymptomatic anomaly by routine testing is extremely infrequent and does not lead to changes in the operating schedule or in the outcome of anaesthesia. Clinical examination and patient history are the only predictive elements, so systematic complementary tests should be abandoned and replaced by judicious selective prescription.

Adolescent↗

A clinically relevant contact allergy to methyldibromo glutaronitrile at 1% (0.32 mg/cm) detected by a patch test.

Recently, the preservative methyldibromo glutaronitrile (MDBGN) at 0.5% w/w in petrolatum was included in the European standard patch test series based on the studies on chemical stability and consideration of rates of contact allergy, doubtful and irritant reactions as well as information on clinical relevance represented by results of a repeated open application test (ROAT) and patch test concentrations required to diagnose allergic contact dermatitis from MDBGN in individual cases. In this report, a case with a clinically relevant contact allergy to MDBGN, which on the mandatory reading occasion on D3 only was traced by a patch test with MDBGN at 1.0% (0.32 mg/cm2), is presented. The patient suffered from a chronic hand dermatitis, and when the patient stopped using a liquid soap containing MDBGN, the hand dermatitis substantially improved. A ROAT performed in a blinded and controlled way with applications twice daily on the hands with 2 moisturizers with and without MDBGN resulted in a deterioration of the hand dermatitis on the hand to which the MDBGN-preserved moisturizer had been applied.

Allergens↗

Usefulness of blood tests carried out during screening of the elderly population in one practice.

A screening programme for elderly patients in a six partner rural practice in west Wales had been found to be unhelpful. When screening became mandatory in April 1990 it was decided to make the programme more medical. The 773 patients aged 75 years or over in the practice were therefore offered a blood test as part of the mandatory screening programme. A total of 631 blood samples were taken. On checking haemoglobin concentrations, 39 patients (6.2%) were found to have levels below 11.5 g dl-1 (30 women, nine men). Forty two patients (7.1%) were found to have a blood urea concentration of more than 10.0 mmol l-1 and only three patients were found to be deficient in potassium, none of whom were receiving long term diuretic medication. Of the 16 patients (2.8%) discovered to have a lower than normal serum thyroxine concentration, 12 were not known to the practice. A raised mean corpuscular volume (greater than 100.0 fl) was found in 35 patients (5.9%) (24 women, 11 men), but only one of these was anaemic. However, among the patients with a low mean corpuscular volume (less than 80.0 fl), seven had a haemoglobin concentration of less than 11.5 g dl-1. Although this exercise has produced clinical benefit for a few patients, and has been interesting and academically stimulating, it cannot be concluded that the benefits obtained are worth the effort that has been involved.

Aged↗

[Diagnosis of colorectal carcinoma. An update].

Colorectal cancer (CRC) is one of the most frequent tumors in western countries. More than 50% of all CRC are diagnosed at an advanced stage which precludes curative treatment. For this reason, early detection of CRC is mandatory to improve longterm outcome. Fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) once per year and subsequent colonoscopy (if the FOBT is positive) provides up to 30% decrease in mortality from CRC. Due to the fact that current data indicate a 60% reduction in CRC-associated mortality, colonoscopy has recently been approved for CRC screening by german public health insurance companies. Yet efforts in screening largely depend on patient compliance, particularly in view of cost-effectiveness. Introduction of new imaging techniques (CT-/MRI-colonography) may increase general acceptance, but clinical benefit and costs still remain to be determined in larger studies.

Colonoscopy↗

Endoscopic management of laryngo-tracheobronchial amyloidosis: a series of 32 patients.

Between June 1983 and December 2002, 32 patients were treated for primary localized laryngo-tracheobronchial amyloidosis (LTBA) at our institution. For enrollment in this retrospective study, at least one positive biopsy with Congo red stain and a diagnostic test battery excluding systemic or secondary amyloidosis were mandatory. The most common presenting symptom was dyspnea, which was observed in 75% of cases. Endoscopic appearance was described as submucosal plaques and nodules with a cobblestone appearance in 44% of patients, tumor-like in 28% and circumferential wall thickening in 28% of cases. Tracheobronchopatia osteochondroplastica was associated with LTBA in 22% of patients, both at the first treatment (four cases) or during follow-up examinations (three). Synchronous or metachronous disease in the larynx and tracheobronchial tree was observed in 47% of cases, while only one patient showed lung involvement with extensive amyloidosis of the trachea and bronchi. All but two patients were endoscopically treated. One of these was affected by a tracheal amyloidoma cured by endoscopic debulking and further tracheal resection-anastomosis. The other patient presented massive laryngo-pharyngeal involvement and was therefore treated by total laryngectomy. A total of 58 endoscopic procedures (range: 1-7; mean: two per patient) were carried out, 11 with CO2 laser (for supraglottic, glottic and selected subglottic lesions) and 47 with Nd:YAG laser (for the most part of subglottic lesions and amyloid deposits located in trachea and bronchi). Four patients required a tracheotomy and three necessitated a T-tube stent during management, which was subsequently removed in all cases. One patient was lost to follow-up, nine were endoscopically controlled elsewhere (Group A) and 22 were followed at our institution (Group B). In Group A, the patient with tracheal amyloidoma is asymptomatic and free of additional LTBA localizations 8 years after surgery. The remaining eight are asymptomatic, but with persistent endoscopic signs of amyloidosis. In Group B, five patients died: one from heart failure and another one from pneumonia 3 and 4 days after surgery, respectively. In one case death was from unrelated causes, and in the two remaining patients it was from respiratory failure due to uncontrolled bilateral bronchial amyloidosis in the subsequent 5 to 6 years. One patient is completely cured 5 years after surgery, and 16 are asymptomatic with persistence of LTBA.

Adult↗