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Reference chart for relative weight change to detect hypernatraemic dehydration.

OBJECTIVE: The validity of the rule of thumb that infants may have a weight loss of 10% in the first days after birth is unknown. We assessed the validity of this and other rules to detect breast-fed infants with hypernatraemic dehydration. DESIGN: A reference chart for relative weight change was constructed by the LMS method. The reference group was obtained by a retrospective cohort study. PARTICIPANTS: 1544 healthy, exclusively breast-fed infants with 3075 weight measurements born in the Netherlands and 83 cases of breast-fed infants with hypernatraemic dehydration obtained from literature. RESULTS: The rule of thumb had a sensitivity of 90.4%, a specificity of 98.3% and a positive predictive value of 3.7%. Referring infants if their weight change is below -2.5 SDS (0.6th centile) in the reference chart in the first week of life and using the rule of thumb in the second week had a sensitivity of 85.5%, a specificity of 99.4% and a positive predictive value of 9.2%. CONCLUSIONS: The rule of thumb is likely to produce too many false positive results, assuming that for screening purposes the specificity needs to be high. A chart for relative weight change can be helpful to detect infants with hypernatraemic dehydration.

Breast Feeding↗

Propionibacterium acnes: interaction with complement and development of an enzyme-linked immunoassay for the detection of antibody.

OBJECTIVE: To characterize the immune response to Propionibacterium acnes in acne patients. DESIGN: Comparison of serologic responses in acne and normal patients using counterimmunoelectrophoresis for antibody and an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibody. SETTING: The serum of acne and nonacne patients from the Dermatology Clinic at the Medical College of Ohio was utilized for analysis. RESULTS: Using counterimmunoelectrophoresis, antibody was detected in 13 of 20 acne patients. The antigen was detectable as an anion in the barbital buffer at pH 8.2, strongly suggesting a carbohydrate component. By ELISA, the antibody proved to be IgG, and the bacteria and its water-soluble fractions were capable of fixing complement. CONCLUSIONS: The primary instigator of inflammation in acne vulgaris is an immunologic reaction to extracellular products of P. acnes. The immunologic response involves both humoral and cell-mediated pathways. The antibodies to P. acnes have not been characterized fully, although they are largely of the IgG class. We have further characterized the dominant antigen to have a carbohydrate component.

Animals↗

[Prevalence of dyslipidemias in adult ambulatory laboratory tests from different health care providers].

OBJECTIVE: To detect differences in the prevalence of dyslipidemia in adult ambulatory laboratory tests from three different health care providers, in Salvador-Brazil, 1995. METHODS: The study was carried out using a probabilistic sample of 24 out of 104 laboratories (approximately equal to 25%) which performed the same enzymatic method for lipid tests with the same quality control. Laboratory tests results were separated into three groups, according to health care provider: Sistema Unico de Saúde (SUS, governamental), Health Maintenance Organizations (HMO), and Private or Patients Health Insurance (PHI). Criteria for dyslipidemias in mg/dl were: total cholesterol > or = 240; LDL-c > or = 160; HDL-c < 35 and triglycerides > or = 200. Prevalence rates, 95% confidence intervals (CI) and chi (2) test were used in the analysis. RESULTS: From the 5464 adult subjects, 14.8% were from SUS, 31.6%. from HMO and 53.6% PHI. The highest prevalence for hypercholesterolemia--28.0% (CI 24.0; 32.0) and for LDL-c > or = 160mg/dL--30.4% (CI 27.6; 33.2), were found in the HMO group. PHI had the highest prevalence for HDL-c < 35mg/dL--12.3% (CI 10.0; 13.8), and for hypertrygliceridemia--17.8% (CI 16.3; 19.3). Most of the differences among health providers were statistically significant. CONCLUSION: The best lypid profile observed in subjects from SUS suggests social differences in the prevalence of dyslipidemias. As compared to other dyslipidemias, HDL-c < 35mg/dL prevalence was lower than expected in all three groups. The data may provide insights to medical doctors and other health care professionals regarding the questions of dyslipidemias. It can also provide objective information to the patients and encourage them to change their life styles.

Adult↗

Fundamental studies of breast tumor detection with narrow beam laser scanning (report 1).

Fundamental studies were performed in which halogen parallel lights and narrow beam He-Ne laser scanning were applied to the image diagnosis of breast lesions. The breast tissue was simulated by fresh milk as an opaque material. With halogen parallel lights, objects close to the light could not be detected, objects in the center were slightly detectable, and those close to the detector were visualized distinctly. Narrow beam scanning with He-Ne laser produced contrasting results: the closer the object was to the light, the better its detectability. However, as the diameter of the object decreased, detectability worsened. The results of the experiments indicated that small lesions in the opaque breast tissue may be detected by He-Ne laser with narrow beam scanning.

Breast Neoplasms↗

[Malignant mesothelioma of the pleura among women].

BACKGROUND: The epidemiological features of mesothelioma among women differ from those observed among men. OBJECTIVES: To trace the outline of pleural mesothelioma among women in the Monfalcone area, Italy. METHODS: Thirty-three malignant mesotheliomas of the pleura observed in female patients at the Hospital of Monfalcone, Italy, in the period 1979-2002 were reviewed. The diagnosis was based on/or confirmed by necropsy findings in 30 cases. Occupational and social histories were obtained from the patients themselves or from their relatives by personal or telephone interviews. In 29 necropsy cases thoracic cavities were examined for the presence of pleural plaques. Routine lung section were examined for asbestos bodies in 30 cases. In 21 cases asbestos bodies were isolated and counted after chemical digestion of lung tissue. RESULTS: The age of the patients ranged between 48 and 89 years (mean 72.85, median 73.00). All the patients had histories of exposure to asbestos, single in 25 cases and mixed in 8. Exposure at home due to cleaning of work clothes was the most frequent type of exposure. Various patients had been exposed in non-asbestos text industries (cotton mills). Unusual types of exposure occurred in some cases (distillery, small sodium carbonate factory, starch factory). The latency periods (time intervals elapsed between first exposure to asbestos and diagnosis of the tumour), calculated in 23 cases, ranged from 34 to 62 years. Pleural plaques were found in 21 cases. Twelve patients showed asbestos bodies on routine lung sections. The asbestos body burden ranged between only a few bodies and 92,000/g dried tissue. CONCLUSIONS: In contrast with other series of mesothelioma among women, all the present cases were attributable to asbestos. The detection of objective signs of exposure (pleural plaques, lung asbestos bodies) played a key role in attribution.

Age Factors↗

Neuropsychological deficits in vascular dementia vs Alzheimer's disease. Frontal lobe deficits prominent in vascular dementia.

OBJECTIVE: To detect neuropsychological differences between Alzheimer's disease (AD) and vascular dementia (VAD). DESIGN: Neuropsychological measures were compared in clinically defined AD and VAD patient groups. SETTING: Ambulatory and hospitalized patients were referred to a behavioral neurology clinic and to the neuropsychology department of a teaching hospital. PATIENTS: Consecutive, referred patients who fulfilled National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke/Alzheimer's Disease and Related Disorders Association and Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Revised Third Edition, criteria for AD and VAD were selected to participate in the study based on the history and clinical findings. A modified ischemic score of 3 or less was an independent selection criterion for AD (n = 103) and a score of 4 or more for VAD (n = 25). Computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging was used to exclude other structural causes. Patients with cognitive changes related directly to a stroke were excluded. Patients were matched for age, education, age at onset, and severity of dementia. MEASURES: The variable measures were the subtests of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Revised (WAIS-R), Wechsler Memory Scale-Revised, Mattis Dementia Rating Scale (MDRS), and Western Aphasia Battery (WAB). Patients were further stratified into mild and severe dementia categories, based on their performance on the MDRS. RESULTS: Variables that were significantly different were selected for discriminant function analysis. The Writing subtest of the WAB, the Picture Arrangement subtest of the WAIS-R, and the Motor Performance subtest of the MDRS were the best discriminators of AD and VAD in the overall and severely affected populations. Patients with VAD performed significantly worse on the MDRS Motor Performance subtest, the WAIS-R Picture Arrangement subtest, the WAB Writing subtest, the WAIS-R Object Assembly subtest, and the WAB Block Design subtest. The AD group performed significantly worse on the WAB Repetition subtest, and patients with severe AD performed significantly worse on the Story Recall test. CONCLUSIONS: Patients with VAD performed worse on tests that are influenced by frontal and subcortical mechanisms. Patients with AD performed worse on memory and some language subtests.

Aged↗

An appraisal of dipyridamole thallium imaging-detected ischemia in Chinese following acute myocardial infarction.

BACKGROUND: The detection of objective myocardial ischemia is an important work-up of risk stratification for survivors of acute myocardial infarction (MI). Intravenous dipyridamole thallium scintigraphy was used to identify the prevalence and prognostic value of silent myocardial ischemia (SI) at the early stage in patients after MI. METHODS: Ninety patients (male/female = 87/3; aged from 36 to 70 years) who succumbed to an episode of MI was recruited in this prospective study. Thallium imaging with reversible or combined defect was defined as presence of SI (Group I), while those with fixed defects or normal images were defined as absence of SI (Group II). Correlation between the patterns of thallium images for postinfarct ischemia and the angiographic lesions was investigated. Also, versatile clinical variables and indexes of adverse cardiac events: unstable angina, CHF, reinfarction, ventricular tachyarrhythmia and sudden death, were evaluated for their influence on patients' prognosis. The average follow-up was 11.6 months. RESULTS: There were 61 patients in the Group I as compared with 29 patients in the Group II. The difference of Killip functional classification between Group I and Group II patients was not significant (1.33 +/- 0.72 versus 1.07 +/- 0.59). Adverse cardiac event occurred in 30% (27/90) of the patients during follow-up. Cardiac death occurred in 6 cases (7%) and were distributed evenly (3 versus 3) in both groups. Group I patients showed a higher number of nonfatal reinfarctions (8 versus 5) and had more cases of percutaneous coronary angioplasty (11 versus 8) than Group II patients. Only two cases in Group I underwent bypass graft surgery. There was no statistic difference among four patterns of thallium image in the cumulative event-free survival curve. Prior history of CHF, prior MI and higher score index of proximal arterial stenosis were the three significant prognostic predictors for late cardiac events. CONCLUSIONS: Dipyridamole thallium imaging-detected SI was frequently seen in the Chinese patients following AMI. It was less valuable than prior histories of CHF, prior MI and higher index of proximal arterial stenosis scores in predicting the short-term unfavorable cardiac events in these patients. A large scale analysis and longer follow-up might be required to more accurately determine the role of this exam for the Chinese victims of myocardial infarction.

Adult↗

Object-based visual attention in luminance increment detection?

A cued reaction time task was used to test the hypothesis that there is an 'object-based' component to shifts of attention mediating the detection of luminance increment targets. The test stimulus consisted of two intersecting triangles forming a 'Star of David'. In two experiments, the cue was a brief brightening of one triangle. The target (a bright green dot) appeared on one of the triangles after a delay of 100, 200 or 500 msec. In one experiment, the target was more likely to appear on the cued triangle. In a second experiment, there was no contingency between cue and target. In both cases, reaction times to targets which appeared outside (but not inside) the cued triangle were more than 10 msec longer than other targets, but only at the shorter cue-target delays. This indicates that the attentional system which regulates luminance increment detection cannot select the cued triangle. It appears that the attentional spotlight can be briefly deformed into a triangular shape, and that it is the rapid, fast-decaying and reflexive exogenous system, rather than the slower acting, persistent and voluntary endogenous system, that mediates this effect. A third experiment using a central, symbolic cue showed no significant cue-validity effects, indicating no contribution from the endogenous system. It is concluded that tasks requiring only stimulus detection cannot unequivocally discriminate between spatial and object-based components of attention.

Adolescent↗

Relations between resting ventricular long axis function, the electrocardiogram, and myocardial perfusion imaging in syndrome X.

OBJECTIVE: To investigate interrelations between ventricular long axis function, resting electrocardiogram, and myocardial perfusion imaging in a group of patients with syndrome X in order to define possible underlying mechanisms. DESIGN: Prospective echocardiographic, electrocardiographic, and myocardial perfusion imaging. SETTING: A tertiary referral centre for cardiac diseases with invasive and non-invasive facilities. PATIENTS: 50 consecutive patients with syndrome X selected on the basis of a history of angina, ST segment depression on exercise, and normal coronary arteriograms and 21 controls of similar age. RESULTS: Long axis motion of one or both ventricles assessed by echocardiography was abnormal in 37 patients. The onset of systolic shortening was delayed by > 130 ms (upper limit of normal 95% confidence interval) in eight patients, and was associated with prolonged shortening during the isovolumic relaxation period in seven (p < 0.01) (systolic abnormalities). The onset of diastolic lengthening was delayed by > 80 ms in 20. Early diastolic peak lengthening rate was < 4.5 cm.s-1 in 13 patients, and the relative amplitude of lengthening during atrial systole was > 45% in 18. On the resting electrocardiogram septal q waves were absent in 12 patients. This was associated with long axis systolic disturbances in seven patients (p < 0.05). T waves were abnormal in 10 and associated with delayed onset of early diastolic lengthening in all (p < 0.001). Late diastolic long axis disturbances were not associated with any consistent electrocardiographic abnormality. Myocardial perfusion imaging was abnormal in six of 33 patients, four of whom had systolic abnormalities (p < 0.03). Imaging was normal in the rest, but in 13 of them long axis function was abnormal in the left side and in four it was abnormal on the right ventricle. Both electrocardiography and imaging were normal in 10 patients. No patient with an abnormal electrocardiogram or myocardial perfusion had normal long axis motion on echocardiography. CONCLUSION: The function of the left and right ventricular long axes was abnormal in about 70% of a sample of patients with syndrome X. Systolic disturbances were consistently associated with absent septal q wave and abnormal myocardial perfusion imaging, while early diastolic disturbances correlated with T wave abnormalities. These associations suggest that the three different investigations detect related objective abnormalities in one or more subgroups of patients with syndrome X.

Echocardiography↗

Fetal heart rate patterns in normal and ritodrine-treated pregnancies, detected by magnetocardiography.

OBJECTIVE: The aim of the present study was to test the validity of magnetocardiography in the diagnosis of fetal heart rate arrhythmias in normal pregnancies, as compared to the number of arrhythmias reported in other series, which were detected by use of other diagnostic techniques. We also evaluated the influence of ritodrine on the fetal heart rhythm in pregnancies treated for the risk of preterm labor by means of magnetocardiography, in order to provide preliminary results that could be utilized in the future establishment of magnetocardiography as a screening procedure in the diagnosis and management of fetal arrhythmias. METHODS: We performed a prospective study on two subgroups of pregnant women: one of 84 women with normal healthy singleton pregnancies and one of 68 pregnant women treated with ritodrine for the risk of preterm labor. RESULTS: The prevalence of fetal arrhythmias in the first subgroup was 3.5% (3/84), while in the second subgroup the prevalence was 16% (11/68). CONCLUSIONS: The incidence of fetal arrhythmias detected in our population of normal pregnancies was comparable to that reported in previous studies by use of other techniques. Results gained from the second subgroup, although not comparable to others, owing to lack of similar reports, led us to believe that magnetocardiography's advantages over conventional methods of fetal cardiac surveillance could highlight the technique as a useful screening procedure for the detection of preterm fetuses, which should be submitted to closer investigation, because of the arrhythmias caused by ritodrine infusion.

Adult↗

MR arthrography of the hip: diagnostic performance of a dedicated water-excitation 3D double-echo steady-state sequence to detect cartilage lesions.

OBJECTIVE: The objective of our study was to compare the diagnostic performance of a dedicated cartilage MR sequence (water-excitation 3D double-echo steady-state) with a standard MR sequence (T1-weighted spin-echo) in detecting articular cartilage lesions of the hip after intraarticular injection of gadopentetate dimeglumine. MATERIALS AND METHODS: In 50 MR arthrograms of the hip joint obtained in 47 consecutive patients, a sagittal 3D double-echo steady-state sequence (TR/TE, 24/6.5; flip angle, 25 degrees ) was compared with a sagittal T1-weighted spin-echo sequence (350/14). Two musculoskeletal radiologists independently evaluated articular cartilage. Sensitivity and specificity for detecting cartilage defects were calculated for those hips that underwent open surgery (n = 21). Lesion conspicuity was retrospectively reviewed and graded between 1 (not visible) and 5 (well defined). RESULTS: At surgery, a total of 26 lesions of the acetabular (n = 20) and femoral (n = 6) cartilage were found. For the 3D double-echo steady-state and T1-weighted spin-echo sequences, sensitivities and specificities for cartilage lesion detection were 58% and 88% and 81% and 81% for reviewer 1 and 62% and 94% and 62% and 100% for reviewer 2, respectively. Lesion conspicuity was significantly superior (p = 0.036) for the 3D double-echo steady-state sequence (mean grade, 3.4) compared with the T1-weighted spin-echo sequence (mean grade, 3.0). The kappa value was fair for the 3D double-echo steady-state sequence (kappa = 0.40) and moderate for the T1-weighted spin-echo sequence (kappa = 0.55). CONCLUSION: The 3D double-echo steady-state sequence optimized for cartilage imaging improves lesion conspicuity but does not improve diagnostic performance.

Adult↗

Preoperative staging of osteosarcoma: efficacy of MR imaging in detecting joint involvement.

OBJECTIVE: Selecting the appropriate surgical procedure for treatment of patients with osteosarcoma requires accurate preoperative evaluation of tumor extent. Establishing the presence or absence of joint involvement is particularly important. Accordingly, we studied the efficacy of MR imaging for detecting joint involvement in 46 patients with osteosarcoma around joint spaces. SUBJECTS AND METHODS: Preoperative MR examinations were performed in 46 consecutive patients with osteosarcoma whose tumors were located around the knee (n = 33), the hip (n = 8), or the shoulder (n = 5). T2-weighted and unenhanced and contrast-enhanced T1-weighted spin-echo MR images were obtained for all patients. We assessed the presence or absence of tumor invasion of the intracapsular-intrasynovial joint space, either by disruption of the joint capsule or by intraarticular destruction of the cortical bone and articular cartilage or the intracapsular-extrasynovial cruciate ligaments of the knee. All patients subsequently had surgery. The MR findings were correlated with findings from macroscopic and microscopic pathologic examinations. RESULTS: All 10 patients who subsequently proved to have tumor involvement of the joint were correctly identified (sensitivity, 100%). The tumor involved the knee joint in seven patients, the hip joint in two, and the shoulder joint in one. However, the MR diagnosis was false-positive in another 11 patients who did not have joint involvement at surgery (specificity, 69%). In the knee, MR imaging was more accurate in identifying tumor extension to the cruciate ligaments than to the intrasynovial joint space. Post-contrast T1-weighted images were most useful in detecting joint involvement. CONCLUSION: MR imaging is highly sensitive for detecting joint invasion of osteosarcoma. However, false-positive diagnoses may lead to overstaging of tumor and result in unnecessarily radical surgical procedures.

Adolescent↗

Cervicovaginal fluid changes to detect ovulation accurately.

OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study was to evaluate changes in cervicovaginal fluid characteristics to identify ovulation. STUDY DESIGN: Several ovulation indicators were studied in a university-based natural family planning center. Fifteen parous women during 29 ovulatory cycles detected cervicovaginal fluid at the vulva. They self-aspirated their upper vaginal fluid, described it, and kept it for later checking. They also took basal body temperature, collected timed first morning urine samples for estrone and pregnanediol glucuronide enzyme immunoassays, and submitted to serial ovarian transvaginal ultrasound scans. RESULTS: Considering a +/-1-day period since ultrasound ovulation detection or allowing an extra day (-1 to +2), women perceived ovulation from cervicovaginal fluid at the vulva in 76% or 97% of cycles, on the basis of their visual description of vaginally extracted fluid in 76% or 90%, which rose to 90% or 97% for the instructor's description, and in 76% or 86% with a rapid drop in glucuronide ratio. Basal body temperature was less precise (71% or 79%). CONCLUSION: Evaluation of cervicovaginal fluid changes is an accurate ovulation indicator.

Adult↗

Bucket-handle tears of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee: value of MR imaging in detecting displaced fragments.

OBJECTIVE: A bucket-handle tear of a meniscus is a longitudinal tear with an attached fragment displaced away from the meniscus. Several MR findings of bucket-handle tears have been reported previously. However, the sensitivity of MR for detecting the displaced fragment is unknown. We determined the sensitivity of MR for detecting a displaced bucket-handle tear and determined how the sensitivity varied with tears of different sizes. We also evaluated whether the three findings of a displaced fragment differed in frequency between medial and lateral tears. MATERIALS AND METHODS: We retrospectively evaluated the MR examinations of 39 patients with arthroscopically proven bucket-handle tears for signs of a displaced meniscal fragment. Thirty-two patients had medial meniscal bucket-handle tears, and seven had lateral tears. Two observers evaluated each examination independently, with discrepancies resolved by consensus of a third reader. Each observer evaluated for three findings of a bucket-handle tear: a double posterior cruciate ligament sign, a flipped meniscus sign, or a fragment in the intercondylar notch. A double posterior cruciate ligament sign is present when the meniscal fragment is displaced anterior to the posterior cruciate ligament, resembling two ligaments. A flipped meniscus sign occurs when the fragment is flipped anteriorly so the anterior horn of the meniscus appears to be enlarged. We tested for differences between menisci in the sensitivity for each sign using Pearson's chi-squared test or Fisher's exact test. We compared the sensitivity of MR for identifying fragments when the tear involved one third, two thirds, or the entire meniscus using Spearman's rank correlation. RESULTS: Overall sensitivity for a displaced fragment was only 0.64. When the bucket-handle tear involved the entire meniscus, the displaced fragment could be seen in 84% of the menisci. The double posterior cruciate ligament sign was seen in 53% of the medial and none of the lateral bucket-handle tears (p = .01). The flipped meniscus sign was noted in 44% of medial and 29% of lateral menisci (p = .68), and a fragment was identified in the intercondylar notch in 66% of medial and 43% of lateral menisci (p = .40). CONCLUSION: MR is sensitive for detecting meniscal fragments in large bucket-handle tears, but is less so in small tears. The flipped meniscus sign and presence of a fragment in the notch were comparably useful findings of a displaced fragment in both medial and lateral menisci. The double posterior cruciate ligament sign was noted only in medial bucket-handle tears.

Adult↗

Modified Middlebrook 7H9 broth for the rapid detection of mycobacteria.

OBJECTIVE: To compare the growth of acid-fast bacilli on classically formulated Lowenstein-Jensen media and Middlebrook 7H11 agar to modified Middlebrook 7H9 broth. DESIGN: Microbiology culture results were evaluated to determine the number of days required to detect growth of acid-fast bacilli from clinical specimens inoculated on different media. DATA: Three thousand one hundred fifty-seven acid fast bacilli cultures were performed from May 1996 through May 1999. There were 140 positive cultures. Initial growth was detected only on Lowenstein-Jensen medium and/or Middlebrook 7H11 agar for 108 cultures, Lowenstein-Jensen medium and/or Middlebrook 7H11 agar and 7H9 for 12 cultures, and only modified Middlebrook 7H9 broth for 20 cultures. Of the 20 cultures that were initially detected only in 7H9, 11 grew in a mean time of 21.1 days compared with 32.5 days for the later growing solid media. The remaining nine grew in a mean time of 26.0 days but did not grow on solid media within the eight-week incubation period. Mycobacterium avium grew in a higher proportion of broth than solid medium cultures, suggesting a preference for the broth. CONCLUSION: The modified Middlebrook 7H9 broth was inexpensive to prepare, allowed for quick and easy growth interpretation, required no special appliances, e.g., ultraviolet light, and allowed for faster growth of some cultures. Although Lowenstein-Jensen medium and Middlebrook 7H11 agar remained the main-stays of our routine acid fast bacilli culture protocol, modified Middlebrook 7H9 broth provided earlier or additional positive results in 14% of the positive cultures. We recommend the use of modified Middlebrook 7H9 broth as described in this paper for improving early detection of acid fast bacilli by culture.

Bacteriological Techniques↗

Additional use of [-2] precursor prostate-specific antigen and "benign" PSA at diagnosis in screen-detected prostate cancer.

OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the adjuvant clinical use of [-2] precursor prostate-specific antigen ([-2]pPSA), which is associated with prostate cancer (PCa), and "benign" PSA, related to benign prostatic hyperplasia, in selecting a treatment strategy in patients with screen-detected PCa. METHODS: Research-use immunoassays (Beckman Coulter) were used to measure [-2]pPSA, sum [-7, -5, -4, and -2]pPSA, and benign PSA from the frozen serum of participants from the screen arm of the European Randomized Study of Screening for Prostate Cancer, section Rotterdam, diagnosed with PCa with a serum PSA level lower than 15 ng/mL. We compared men with relatively benign PCa (Epstein's criteria; group 1) and men with arbitrarily defined aggressive PCa characteristics (Gleason score greater than 4 + 4 and more than four cores with PCa invasion or pT3C disease; group 2). RESULTS: The data of 61 patients were evaluated. The median age in both groups was 68 years. Total PSA performed best in a univariate analysis, although in the multivariate analysis, the combination of pPSA and percent free PSA could correctly predict 95.5% of group 1 and 82.4% of group 2. The pPSA and percent free PSA forms remained statistically significant in the multivariate analysis of a subgroup of 30 participants normalized for PSA level and prostate volume; combined they correctly identified 89.5% and 54.5% of patients identified as having relatively favorable and aggressive PCa characteristics, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: Adjuvant clinical use of pPSA over traditional parameters in selecting treatment strategies for men with PCa cannot yet be definitely determined. However, the promising results in a subgroup analysis warrant further investigation.

Aged↗

[A scanning method for detecting colorectal tumors].

OBJECTIVE: To develop a method for survey of colorectal tumors. METHODS: Mucus obtained by digital rectal examination was smeared on a slice to react with peanut agglutinin labeled by Horseradish-peroxidase. RESULTS: Brown color was noted in positive reaction. In detecting colorectal tumors, the sensitivity and specificity of the method was 88.2% and 92.5% respectively. CONCLUSION: The method is effective in detecting colorectal tumors in humans.

Adult↗

Analysis of p53 gene mutations in keloids using polymerase chain reaction-based single-strand conformational polymorphism and DNA sequencing.

BACKGROUND: Keloids are the result of a dysregulated wound healing process. They are characterized by the formation of excess scar tissue that proliferates beyond the boundaries of the original wound. Somatic mutations of p53 have been implicated as causal events in up to 50% of all human malignancies. In addition, p53 has been shown to play an important role in controlling cell proliferation and apoptosis. We hypothesize that mutations in p53 can lead to a hyperproliferative state that can result in keloid formation. OBJECTIVE: To detect p53 DNA mutations in tissues and cultured fibroblasts from skin lesions of 7 patients with keloids. DESIGN: The polymerase chain reaction followed by single-strand conformational polymorphism analysis and direct DNA sequencing were used to detect p53 gene mutations. SETTING: The Department of Dermatology, Henry Ford Hospital, Detroit, Mich. PATIENTS: Seven patients with keloids seen for routine surgical excision of their lesions. Normal DNA specimens were obtained from buccal smears and healthy skin samples from these patients. RESULTS: Mutations in the p53 were identified in all patients by polymerase chain reaction followed by single-strand conformational polymorphism analysis and subsequently confirmed by DNA sequencing. A mutation in exon 5 resulting in amino acid substitution was found in 1 of the patients in keloid tissue and cultured keloid fibroblasts (codon 156, CGC-->CCC, arginine-->proline). Frameshift mutations in exons 5 and 6 caused by the insertion or deletion of a nucleotide at different positions were found in 6 patients with keloids in both keloid tissues and cultured fibroblasts. Mutations in exon 4 resulting in amino acid substitution were found in all patients in both keloid tissues and cultured fibroblasts (all in codon 72, CGC-->CCC, arginine-->proline). No p53 mutations were detected in buccal smears or cultured fibroblasts from healthy skin samples of any of the patients. CONCLUSIONS: Focal mutations in p53 may increase cell proliferation and decrease cell death in the dysregulated growth patterns that have been clinically documented. An understanding of the pattern of all growth dysregulation related to keloids may lead to new therapeutic strategies.

Adult↗