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Glycoprotein IV-independent adhesion of sickle red blood cells to immobilized thrombospondin under flow conditions.

The abnormal adherence of red blood cells (RBC to the blood vessel wall is believed to contribute to the vascular occlusion observed in patients with sickle call anemia. The cell adhesion receptors GPIV (CD36) and integrin alpha 4 beta 1 (CD49d/CD29) were previously identified on circulating sickle reticulocytes, and shown to mediate sickle RBC adhesion to the endothelium. The presence of damaged endothelium in these patients suggests that exposed extracellular matrix proteins could provide a potential substrate for sickle RBC adhesion. To determine whether RBC adhesion receptors could mediate adhesion to extracellular matrix proteins, we tested their ability to adhere to a variety of immobilized, purified proteins under flow conditions. Neither sickle nor normal RBC adhered to fibronectin, vitronectin, fibrinogen, or collagen. In contrast, we observed substantial adhesion of sickle but not normal RBC to thrombospondin (TSP). The adhesion was not inhibited with known antagonists of the GPIV-TSP interaction, nor by inhibitors of several other known binding domains in TSP. Moreover, the adhesion was resistant to inhibition by soluble TSP, suggesting that immobilization of TSP exposes an adhesive site that is cryptic on TSP in solution. However, the glycosaminoglycans, chondroitin sulfate A, and dextran sulfate were potent inhibitors of this adhesion. These results suggest that a mechanism distinct from GPIV is responsible for sickle RBC adhesion to immobilized TSP under flow conditions.

Aggrecans↗

Severe hypoxia enhances the formation of erythroid bursts from human cord blood cells and the maintenance of BFU-E in vitro.

Incubation in severe hypoxia (1% oxygen) increased the number of erythroid bursts generated from full-term CD34+, or premature mononucleated, human cord blood (CB) cells, in semisolid cultures containing stem cell factor (SCF), interleukin (IL)-3 and erythropoietin (EPO). Severe hypoxia also enhanced the maintenance of erythroid burst-forming units (BFU-E) in CB cell liquid cultures. These positive effects of hypoxia on the maintenance and cloning efficiency of BFU-E did not extend to the other progenitors assayed. Hypoxia, on the other hand, markedly reduced the size and level of hemoglobinization of bursts and, in liquid cultures, suppressed the growth factor-stimulated numerical increase in BFU-E and inhibited the expression of CD36, a marker of erythroid colony-forming units and maturing erythroid precursors. However, when transferred to clonal assays incubated in air, cells from liquid cultures incubated in hypoxia or in air generated fully expanded and hemoglobinized bursts, suggesting that in hypoxia the clonogenic potential of BFU-E was maintained and the development of erythroid clones reversibly inhibited. These results indicate that hypoxia inversely regulates two subsequent phases of erythropoiesis, i.e., it enhances the maintenance of BFU-E and the early development of erythroid clones but inhibits the terminal expansion and maturation of these clones. The cloning of CB cells selected for CD34 positivity, when compared with that of the total population of mononucleated CB cells, revealed that the early development of erythroid bursts was either hypoxia-enhanced or hypoxia-insensitive, reflecting the existence of two different types of BFU-E. Hypoxia-enhanced BFU-E are relatively immature, are maintained in hypoxia but not in air, and account for a large part of CD34+ BFU-E and for a high percentage of the BFU-E in premature CB. Hypoxia-insensitive BFU-E are mostly CD34- and are largely predominant in full-term CB, and most probably correspond to a more mature type of BFU-E.

Antigens, CD↗

Differential expression of cytokines in UV-B-exposed skin of patients with polymorphous light eruption: correlation with Langerhans cell migration and immunosuppression.

BACKGROUND: Disturbances in UV-induced Langerhans cell migration and T helper (T(H)) 2 cell responses could be early steps in the pathogenesis of PLE. OBJECTIVE: To establish whether UV-B exposure induces aberrant cytokine expression in the uninvolved skin of patients with polymorphous light eruption (PLE). DESIGN: Immunohistochemical staining and comparison of microscopic sections of skin irradiated with 6 times the minimal dose of UV-B causing erythema and the unirradiated skin of patients with PLE and of healthy individuals. SETTING: University Medical Center (Dutch National Center for Photodermatoses). Patients Patients with PLE (n = 6) with clinically proven pathological responses to UV-B exposure and normal erythemal sensitivity. Healthy volunteers (n = 5) were recruited among students and hospital staff. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Expression of cytokines related to Langerhans cell migration (interleukin [IL] 1, IL-18,and tumor necrosis factor [TNF] alpha); T(H)2 responses (IL-4 and IL-10); and T(H)1 responses (IL-6, IL-12, and interferon gamma). Double staining was performed for elastase (neutrophils), tryptase (mast cells), and CD36 (macrophages). RESULTS: The number of cells expressing IL-1beta and TNF-alpha was reduced in the UV-B-exposed skin of patients with PLE compared with the skin of healthy individuals (P<.05 for TNF-alpha). No differences were observed in the expression of T(H)1-related cytokines but fewer cells expressing IL-4 infiltrated the epidermis of patients with PLE 24 hours after irradiation (P =.03). After UV exposure TNF-alpha, IL-4, and, to a lesser extent, IL-10 were predominantly expressed by neutrophils. CONCLUSIONS: The reduced expression of TNF-alpha, IL-4, and IL-10 in the UV-B-irradiated skin of patients with PLE appears largely attributable to a lack of neutrophils, and is indicative of reduced Langerhans cell migration and reduced T(H)2 skewing. An impairment of these mechanisms underlying UV-B-induced immunosuppression may be important in the pathogenesis of PLE.

Adult↗

Platelet activation induced by porcine factor VIII (Hyate:C).

We studied the effects of porcine factor VIII (P-FVIII; Hyate:C) and other coagulation products employed in the management of patients with hemophilia A, on platelet activation in vitro. Exposure of normal resting platelets to P-FVIII resulted in platelet activation, as manifested by increased expression of the platelet surface activation markers CD62, CD63, and activated-GPIIbIIIa, and by activation-induced modulation of expression of normal platelet membrane glycoproteins CD41, CD42, and CD36. In contrast, platelet activation was not observed after exposure of the platelets to human FVIII, FEIBA, recombinant FVIIa, or cryosupernatant plasma. As with thrombin, exposure of platelets to P-FVIII resulted in the generation of platelet microparticles, an effect not seen not with the other products. In contrast to the characteristic reduction in expression in the number of CD42 molecules detected on thrombin-activated platelets, P-FVIII-stimulated platelets showed a small increase in CD42 expression. In contrast to thrombin, P-FVIII did not cause platelet dense granule release. The results indicate that therapeutic P-FVIII activates platelets, likely in ways that are different from the platelet activation seen with thrombin. The observed platelet activation and microparticle generation may provide a "hypercoagulable" mechanism for hemostasis with P-FVIII therapy separate from, and additional to, that due to increased circulating FVIII levels.

Animals↗

Immunophenotype of a transient myeloproliferative disorder in a newborn with trisomy 21.

Cytologic, immunologic, and cytogenetic studies were performed on the blast cells of a newborn with Down syndrome and transient myeloproliferative disease. This hematologic disorder is uncommon, and occurs primarily in infants with Down syndrome. This boy presented with a high white blood cell count and a high percentage of blast cells, without anemia or thrombocytopenia. Chromosome analysis showed a constitutional trisomy 21 without any other clonal abnormality. A three-color flow cytometric analysis was performed and revealed two different CD45 dim, CD34(+), CD117(+), CD56(+) immature subpopulations: the normal immature myeloid precursor and an immature blast cell population that expressed CD41, CD42, CD61, CD36, CD13, CD1a, and CD2. We postulate that this population could be the leukemic precursor involved in the acute megakaryoblastic leukemia frequently observed in children with Down syndrome.

Down Syndrome↗

Low expression of CD40 and B7 on macrophages infiltrating UV-exposed human skin; role in IL-2Ralpha-T cell activation.

After UV exposure of skin, epidermal Langerhans cells (LC) are depleted, whereas CD11b+CD36 CD1a- monocytes/macrophages (UV-Mphi) infiltrate. Different immunological outcomes in vivo are mediated by LC (sensitization) and UV-Mphi (tolerance) which may be related to the distinct T cell activation states that these antigen-presenting cells (APC) induce. We previously demonstrated that CD4+ T lymphocytes activated by UV-Mphi are, in contrast to LC-activated T cells, IL-2Ralpha deficient, and we hypothesize that this differential T cell activation is related to differences in co-stimulatory molecules between UV-Mphi and LC. Using four-color flow cytometry, we found a reduced capacity to up-regulate expression of the important co-stimulatory molecules CD40, B7-1 and B7-2 by UV-Mphi relative to LC. This alteration in co-stimulatory molecule expression was selective, because UV-Mphi express equal levels of ICAM-1 and ICAM-3, and increased levels of LFA-1, relative to LC. After bidirectional signaling with T cells during alloantigen presentation, UV-Mphi still exhibited less CD40 and B7-1 than LC. Addition of IFN-gamma induced CD40 and B7-1 expression on UV-Mphi and restored IL-2Ralpha expression on UV-Mphi-activated T cells but had no effect on IL-2Ralpha on resting or LC-activated T cells. The restoration of IL-2Ralpha expression on UV-Mphi-activated T cells by IFN-gamma was inhibited (67 %, p = 0.005) by addition of neutralizing anti-CD40. Therefore, differences in co-stimulatory molecule expression, in particular CD40, on UV-Mphi and LC are critical in determining the distinct T cell activation induced by these APC.

B7-1 Antigen↗

Optimal number of reagents required to evaluate hematolymphoid neoplasias: results of an international consensus meeting.

At the ISAC 2000 Congress, the Clinical Cytometry Society organized a meeting of international experts to reach consensus on the minimum number of antibodies required for a full evaluation of hematologic and lymphoid neoplasias. A questionnaire was distributed prior to the meeting to numerous experts from US and European institutions and 13 responses were received. At the meeting, 25 individuals, including most of those who returned responses, participated in the discussions and voted on the issues presented. In chronic lymphoproliferative disorders (CLD), 9 antibodies (anti-CD5, CD19, kappa, lambda, CD3, CD20, CD23, CD10, and CD45) were deemed essential for initial evaluation by 75% of the participants. There was near unanimity that additional markers (selected from CD22, FMC7, CD11c, CD103, CD38, CD25, CD79b and heavy chains for B-cell disorders, and CD4, CD7, CD8, CD2, CD56, CD16, TCRa/b, and TCRg/d for T-cell disorders) would be needed to fully characterize CLD, although not every marker would be useful in all cases. Tissue lymphomas were believed to be similar to CLD, needing a minimum of 12--16 markers. However, for some cases, CD30, bcl-2, TdT, CD71, CD1a, and CD34 were cited as useful by the participants. Markers mentioned for plasma cell disorders included kappa, lambda, CD38, CD45, CD56, CD19, CD20, CD138, and heavy chains. Of 17 voting participants, 16 agreed that between 5 to 8 markers would be essential reagents for plasma cell disorders. For acute leukemia (AL), 10 markers (CD10, CD19, CD13, CD33, CD34, CD45, CD7, CD14, CD3, and HLADR) were considered essential by 75% of participants for initial characterization of the leukemia lineage. Most (>75%) agreed that at least one more B (CD20, CD22, CD79a, IgM), T (CD1a, CD2, CD4, CD5, CD8), myeloid (CD11b, CD15, CD64, CD117, myeloperoxidase), erythroid (CD36, CD71, glycophorin A), and megakaryocytic (CD41, CD61) reagents should be included in the essential panel. However, there was no agreement as to which was optimal. Thus, approximately 13--15 of those reagents would be considered essential in all cases of AL, whereas others (CD16, CD56, CDw65, TdT, and cytoplasmic CD3) were mentioned as useful in some cases. Almost all voting participants believed that the appropriate number of markers for complete characterization of AL would average 20--24. The majority of the responders (11 of 13) indicated that fewer reagents could be used in monitoring or staging patients with previously characterized disease, but not all ventured a specific number of reagents. From the above results, we conclude that the phenotypic analysis of hematologic and lymphoid neoplasia requires a rather extensive panel of reagents. Supplementary reagents might even be necessary if they prove to become relevant for diagnostic purposes. Reducing the number of antibodies could significantly compromise the diagnostic accuracy, appropriate monitoring, or therapy of these disorders.

Biomarkers↗

The heat shock protein gp96 induces maturation of dendritic cells and down-regulation of its receptor.

Peptides associated with the heat shock protein gp96 induce a specific T cell response against cells from which gp96 is isolated. Recently, we have shown that gp96 binds to a yet unknown receptor present on dendritic cells (DC) and that receptor-mediated uptake is required for cross-presentation of gp96-associated peptides by DC. We now describe that gp96 mediates maturation of DC as determined by up-regulation of MHC class II and CD86 molecules, secretion of the cytokines IL-12 and TNF-alpha and enhanced T cell stimulatory capacity. Heat-denatured gp96 is not able to induce DC maturation and cytokine secretion. Furthermore, we show that mature DC are no longer able to bind gp96 molecules. Hence, the gp96 receptor is down-regulated on mature DC, suggesting that this receptor behaves similar to other receptors involved in antigen uptake like the scavenger receptor CD36, the mannose receptor or the integrins alpha(v)beta(3) and alpha(v)beta(5). Together, our findings provide an additional explanation for the remarkable immunogenicity of gp96 as a cross-priming antigen carrier and direct activator of DC.

Animals↗

Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma activators affect the maturation of human monocyte-derived dendritic cells.

Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARgamma ), a member of the nuclear receptor superfamily, has recently been described as a modulator of macrophage functions and as an inhibitor of T cell proliferation. Here, we investigated the role of PPARgamma in dendritic cells (DC), the most potent antigen-presenting cells. We showed that PPARgamma is highly expressed in immature human monocyte-derived DC (MDDC) and that it may affect the immunostimulatory function of MDDC stimulated with lipopolysaccharide (LPS) or via CD40 ligand (CD40L). We found that the synthetic PPARgamma agonist rosiglitazone (as well as pioglitazone and troglitazone) significantly increases on LPS- and CD40L-activated MDDC, the surface expression of CD36 (by 184% and 104%, respectively) and CD86 (by 54% and 48%), whereas it reduces the synthesis of CD80 (by 42% and 42%). Moreover, activation of PPARgamma resulted in a dramatic decreased secretion of the Th1-promoting factor IL-12 in LPS- and CD40L-stimulated cells (by 47% and 62%), while the production of IL-1beta, TNF-alpha, IL-6 and IL-10 was unaffected. Finally, PPARgamma ligands down-modulate the synthesis of IFN-gamma -inducible protein-10 (recently termed as CXCL10) and RANTES (CCL5), both chemokines involved in the recruitment of Th1 lymphocytes (by 49% and 30%), but not the levels of the Th2 cell-attracting chemokines,macrophage-derived chemokine (CCL22) and thymus and activation regulated chemokine (CCL17), in mature MDDC. Taken together, our data suggest that activation of PPARgamma in human DC may have an impact in the orientation of primary and secondary immune responses by favoring type 2 responses.

Chemokine CCL4↗

Lipopolysaccharide and ceramide docking to CD14 provokes ligand-specific receptor clustering in rafts.

The glycosylphosphatidylinositol-anchored receptor CD14 plays a major role in the inflammatory response of monocytes to lipopolysaccharide. Here, we describe that ceramide, a constituent of atherogenic lipoproteins, binds to CD14 and induces clustering of CD14 to co-receptors in rafts. In resting cells, CD14 was associated with CD55, the Fcgamma-receptors CD32 and CD64 and the pentaspan CD47. Ceramide further recruited the complement receptor 3 (CD11b/CD18) and CD36 into proximity of CD14. Lipopolysaccharide, in addition, induced co-clustering with Toll-like receptor 4, Fcgamma-RIIIa (CD16a) and the tetraspanin CD81 while CD47 was dissociated. The different receptor complexes may be linked to ligand-specific cellular responses initiated by CD14.

Antigens, CD↗

Discordance between phenotype and function of Japanese adult T cell leukemia cells.

Phenotypes of cells from 12 patients with ATL were analysed by means of a fluorescence-activated cell sorter by utilizing a panel of monoclonal antibodies. A majority of the cells from peripheral blood coexpressed the antigens against MAbs CD2, CD3, CD4, CD5, Ti (WT31), CD25, CD38, CD45, and CD29, but did not express the antigens against CD1, CD13, CD14, CD33, CD36, CD10, CD19, CD20, CD21, CD24, CD41, CD42, CD45RA, CD56, and CD57. The expression of antigen for TQ-1 or Leu8 was variable. Surface immunoglobulins were not detected. Phenotypes of cultured cells established by utilizing recombinant interleukin II were similar to those of the uncultured peripheral blood lymphoid cells except for the lack of expression of CD8. By means of two-color fluorescence, the ATL cells possessing CD4 in peripheral blood and culture coexpressed CD29, but did not express CD45RA. The suppression of PWM-induced B-cell immunoglobulin synthesis by normal T and B cells was found in five cases in the presence of ATL cells. The ATL cells demonstrated helper T-cell phenotypes (CD4+, CD29+) with suppressor function, paradoxically. We conclude that the phenotype of the ATL cells was CD4+, CD29+, and CD45RA- but that the function of these cells was of suppressor T-cells. Our results inevitably suggest the possible existence of suppressor T-cells with CD4+, CD29+ phenotype in persons without evidence of any underlying hematologic disorder.

Antibodies, Monoclonal↗

Human reserve pluripotent mesenchymal stem cells are present in the connective tissues of skeletal muscle and dermis derived from fetal, adult, and geriatric donors.

This study details the profile of 13 cell surface cluster differentiation markers on human reserve stem cells derived from connective tissues. Stem cells were isolated from the connective tissues of dermis and skeletal muscle derived from fetal, mature, and geriatric humans. An insulin/dexamethasone phenotypic bioassay was used to determine the identity of the stem cells from each population. All populations contained lineage-committed myogenic, adipogenic, chondrogenic, and osteogenic progenitor stem cells as well as lineage-uncommitted pluripotent stem cells capable of forming muscle, adipocytes, cartilage, bone, fibroblasts, and endothelial cells. Flow cytometric analysis of adult stem cell populations revealed positive staining for CD34 and CD90 and negative staining for CD3, CD4, CD8, CD11c, CD33, CD36, CD38, CD45, CD117, Glycophorin-A, and HLA DR-II.

Aged↗

Association study of candidate genes for the prevalence and progression of knee osteoarthritis.

OBJECTIVE: Osteoarthritis (OA), characterized by late-onset degeneration of articular cartilage, is recognized to have a genetic component. We examined the role of 26 single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) from 24 candidate genes in OA susceptibility and progression. METHODS: We compared human complementary DNA libraries from OA-affected and normal cartilage and synovium and selected 22 genes in addition to the estrogen receptor alpha and vitamin D receptor genes. Based on the availability of polymorphisms, we proceeded to test whether genetic variation at those genes affected susceptibility to or progression of radiographic knee OA over a 10-year period in 749 women (mean age 64 years) from the longitudinal Chingford Study. RESULTS: After adjusting for age and body mass index, we observed significant associations at ADAM12, BMP2, CD36, COX2, and NCOR2 with 3 OA susceptibility traits (presence/absence of joint space narrowing [JSN], presence/absence of osteophytes, and Kellgren/Lawrence [K/L] score). For the OA progression traits (change over 10 years in the K/L score, osteophyte grade, and JSN grade), we found significant associations with ADAM12, CILP, OPG, and TNA. Overall, we observed 15 associations with nominal significance (P < 0.05) and, by permutation analysis, found that such a number would be observed by chance only 3.8% of the time. Although these tests require replication, the stronger genetic associations observed are unlikely to be attributable simply to multiple comparisons. CONCLUSION: Our results suggest that OA severity and progression have a multigenic and feature-specific nature. These findings should encourage the development of genetic diagnostics for OA progression based on multiple SNPs and help unravel some of the complex disease mechanisms in OA.

Adult↗

Quenching of Hoechst 33258 fluorescence in erythroid precursors.

Quenching of the fluorescence of DNA-bound Hoechst 33258 in erythroid precursors was studied by flow cytometry and cytochemistry. This quenching artifact may affect the measurement of ploidy in specific cases. The bone marrow cells of two patients with hemolytic disease and active erythropoiesis contained subpopulations of cells with an apparent hypodiploid DNA content as measured by flow cytometry of paraformaldehyde-fixed cells stained with Hoechst 33258. No aneuploidy was detected in either of the two cases when cells were stained with mithramycin or 7-aminoactinomycin D. Cells exhibiting reduced Hoechst 33258 fluorescence expressed glycophorin A and low amounts of CD36, and were therefore erythroid precursors. In one case studied, the number of cells with reduced Hoechst 33258 fluorescence and glycophorin A expressed agreed well with the number of cells containing nuclear hemoglobin. In the other case, hemoglobin was present in a significant proportion of nucleated cells. Calculated values for the efficiency of resonance energy transfer from Hoechst 33258 to hemoglobin were in accordance with the observed levels of quenching (approximately 10%). However, the results could also be explained by hemoglobin reabsorption of Hoechst 33258 fluorescence. Nuclei stained with Hoechst 33258 showed uniform fluorescence, probably due to extraction of hemoglobin during the isolation procedure.

Benzimidazoles↗

Pretherapeutic identification of high-risk acute myeloid leukemia (AML) patients from immunophenotypic, cytogenetic, and clinical parameters.

BACKGROUND: The goal of this study concerned the pretherapeutic identification of high-risk acute myeloid leukemia (AML) patients by data pattern analysis from flow cytometric immunophenotype, cytogenetic, and clinical data. METHODS: Sixty-seven parameters of AML patients at diagnosis were classified for predictive information by algorithmic data sieving using iteratively self optimizing triple matrix data pattern analysis (http://www.biochem.mpg.de/valet/classif1.html). RESULTS: Pretherapeutic predictive values for nonsurvival within five years and two years were 100.0% and 83.2%, respectively, compared to 13.9% and 47.4% for the prediction of survival at five years and two years, respectively. At diagnosis, five-year nonsurvivors showed increased patient age and higher concentration of cells in the analyzed specimen, as well as increased levels of % CD2, CD4, CD13, CD36, and CD45 positive AML blasts. Two-year nonsurvivors were characterized by a data pattern of increased patient age and levels of % CD4, CD7, CD11b, CD24, CD45, TH126, and HLA-DR positive AML blasts and decreased levels of % CD1, CD65, CD95, and TC25 positive AML blasts. Cytogenetic abnormalities were not selected for the optimized discriminatory data patterns. CONCLUSIONS: The comparatively accurate pretherapeutic identification of high-risk AML patients may prove useful for the development of individualized therapy protocols in stratified clinical patients groups.

Acute Disease↗

Extramedullary erythropoiesis in human liver grafts.

Extramedullary erythropoiesis in the adult is very rare and is generally confined to situations of severe bone marrow irritation or replacement. In this study, we describe the occurrence of intrahepatic erythropoiesis in patients who have received a liver allograft and who have no evidence of bone marrow dysfunction. By routinely performed transplant aspiration cytology (TAC), marked intrahepatic erythropoiesis could be detected in 39 of 312 patients (12.5%) with liver allograft. In 19 patients, including 5 of 8 (63%) after combined liver and kidney transplantation, intrahepatic erythropoiesis occurred within the first 3 weeks after surgery. Twenty patients showed intrahepatic erythropoiesis between 3 weeks and 4 months after transplantation. Erythropoiesis was usually transient, lasting between 1 and 3 weeks. Cytologically, mature as well as immature erythroblasts of GlyA+ CD36+ CD45- phenotype could be detected in the grafts, whereas they were absent in blood; histologically, the cells could be localized to the sinusoids of the liver. There was no clear correlation of preoperative or postoperative hemoglobin levels, graft function, kidney function, and immunosuppressive medication with the presence or absence of erythropoiesis. Moreover, serum levels of erythropoietin (EPO) and stem cell factor (SCF) in patients with and without intrahepatic erythropoiesis in the early postoperative phase did not show significant differences. These findings show that intrahepatic erythropoiesis can occur transiently in human liver allografts and suggest that systemic stimuli as well as local factors may contribute to it.

Biopsy↗

Immunohistochemical studies on endothelial cell phenotype in hepatocellular carcinoma.

To examine the phenotype of the sinusoidal endothelial cells (SECs) surrounding tumor cells and the process of capillarization in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), 51 primary HCCs, 4 adrenal metastases, and 3 portal tumor thrombi were immunohistochemically stained with monoclonal antibodies (MAbs) for CD4, CD14 (lipopolysaccharide-binding protein complex receptors), and CD32 (Fc gamma receptor II), which are specifically found on the SECs in normal liver, but not on ordinary vascular endothelial cells (ECs). Immunostaining was also performed for CD36 (thrombospondin receptors), EN4 antigen (Ag) (a pan-vascular endothelial cell Ag), PAL-E Ag (a venous and capillary EC Ag), factor VIII-related Ag (FVIIIRAg), and laminin. MAb 25F9, which identifies macrophages, was simultaneously used with the other MAbs to distinguish macrophages from SECs in HCCs (HCC SECs). CD4, CD14, and/or CD32 were found on HCC SECs only in 12 well-differentiated primary HCCs showing a thin trabecular or pseudoglandular tumor cell arrangement. These 12 tumors were smaller than those without CD4-, CD14-, and/or CD32-positive SECs (P < .05). Among them, 7, 5, and 11 tumors were negative or only partially positive for laminin, PAL-E Ag, and FVIIIRAg, respectively. Staining for laminin and PAL-E Ag showed an inverse relationship to the expression of CD4, CD14, and CD32 on HCC SECs and the tumor differentiation. In conclusion, the phenotypes of the SECs in early and well-differentiated HCC are thought to be similar to those of the SECs in normal liver. With progressing tumor dedifferentiation the HCC SECs lose the phenotypes peculiar to liver SECs and acquire the characteristics of capillary ECs, though both types of phenotypical change occur independently of each other.

Antigens, CD↗

Unique human CD133+ leukemia cell line and its modulation towards a mesenchymal phenotype by FGF2 and TGFbeta1.

Immunological features of GM-490 cells, a new blood cell line from a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukemia, included lack of CD34, CD38, CD45, CD14, HLA-DR, and lymphoid and myeloid markers and expression of CD29, CD36, CD44, CD54, CD71, CD105, and CD133. Molecular analysis indicated CD45 gene expression was absent but CD34 mRNA was present. GM-490 cells constitutively produced fibronectin (FN), type III and traces of type I collagen, collagenases, glycosaminoglycans (GAG) and biglycan and betaglycan proteoglycans (PG) as well as FGF2 and TGFbeta1. When FGF2 and/or TGFbeta1 were added to cells in vitro, they stimulated cell proliferation and differently modulated matrix production and growth factor receptor expression. Reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) detection of transcripts encoding for osteocalcin and RUNX2 suggests GM-490 cells differentiate towards the osteoblast pathway. GM-490 cells expressed the low affinity nerve growth factor receptor (p75LNGFR), a somatic stem cell marker that is not detected in hematopoietic cells, leading to the hypothesis that GM-490 has mesenchymal stem cell properties. The reciprocal modulating effects of FGF2 and TGFbeta1 on each other's receptors make the GM-490 cell line a new model for investigating the relationship between these growth factors and their receptors in autocrine loops which are believed to sustain the malignant clone in hematological diseases.

AC133 Antigen↗