Search PubMed⌕ Search

SEARCH · Search PubMed

Results for “diagnostic optimization”

Search indexed PubMed citations on genomics, clinical trials, systematic reviews and public health. Explore titles, authors and supplied subject terms, then open the PubMed record.

Quote a phrase for an exact phrase match. Source license links do not imply unrestricted reuse.

At least 577 records · Page 32Linked to original sources
PubMed2000

The immunofluorescence antibody test (IFAT) for the diagnosis of schistosomiasis used in a non-endemic area.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate an immunofluorescence antibody test (IFAT) for diagnosis of schistosomiasis in nonimmune travellers and immigrants from endemic areas. METHODS: 65 patients (48 Danes and 17 immigrants) with schistosomiasis were included. The diagnosis of schistosomiasis was based on the presence of schistosome eggs in faeces, urine, sperm, rectal or bladder biopsies and/or the presence of specific antibodies determined by the serological immunofluorescence antibody test (IFAT). Egg excretion was detected using conventional methods and the IFAT performed on whole S. mansoni schistosomula worms, harvested after 8 weeks from mice. Two patterns of immunofluorescence were observed: Fluorescence in the gut of the schistosome called 'Gut Associated Antigen, GAA', and fluorescence of the surface of the schistosomula called 'Membrane Bound Antigen, MBA'. RESULTS: Eggs were found in 44% of the Danish patients and in 76% of immigrants. The diagnosis was based on a positive IFAT in 48% of the patients. In patients from nonendemic areas, the finding of antibodies against GAA was diagnostic while optimal sensitivity in the immigrants was reached by measuring antibodies against both GAA and MBA. CONCLUSION: In patients from nonendemic areas GAA is a sensitive marker of acute infection with schistosomiasis. In patients from endemic areas the demonstration of both GAA and MBA is necessary to properly identify long-lasting, nonacute infections. Egg-detection and/or measurement of CAA and CCA remain the methods of choice to monitor treatment as the immunofluorescence assay may remain positive for several years after treatment.

Adolescent↗
PubMed1999

Conservative management of documented neuroretinitis in cat scratch disease associated with Bartonella henselae infection.

BACKGROUND: Bartonella henselae has been identified as the causative agent of the neuroretinitis associated with cat scratch disease (CSD). Immunofluorescent antibody tests with good sensitivity and specificity are available to aid in diagnosis. Despite diagnostic advances, optimal management remains controversial. We present a case of documented B. henselae macular neuroretinitis managed without antibiotics and discuss antibiotic use in this condition. METHODS: We examined a young woman with macular neuroretinitis and established a diagnosis of CSD. Management consisted of a review of the literature, followed by educating her about the condition and close observation. We documented the course of her disease. RESULTS: We diagnosed neuroretinitis associated with B. henselae infection based on immunofluorescent antibody titres and clinical presentation. Our patient's neuroretinitis resolved promptly without antibiotic therapy. CONCLUSIONS: Macular neuroretinitis in CSD can be satisfactorily diagnosed with the use of fluorescent antibodies in the appropriate clinical setting. Optimal treatment for the disease has not been established and observation combined with patient education remains an appropriate option. The self-limited nature of the disease implies that treatment studies not using controls must be interpreted with great caution. Adverse drug reactions and other iatrogenic complications can be reduced by limiting antibiotic use in settings where a meaningful treatment benefit has not been established.

Adult↗
PubMed1991

[Magnetic resonance tomography of the oropharynx and oral cavity with Gd-DTPA. An optimized study technic and its diagnostic value].

In the evaluation of space-occupying lesions of the oropharynx it is necessary to perform modern imaging methods, such as magnetic resonance imaging additionally to clinical and endoscopical methods. 126 patients were examined using T1-weighted (TR = 500 ms, TE = 25 ms) and T2-weighted (TR = 3000 ms, TE = 25/90 ms) spin-echo-sequences before and after i.v. application of Gd-DTPA. Superficially growing lesions of stage T1 could not be delineated from isointense mucosa. The preoperative staging of T2-T4 lesions can be markedly improved by using T1- and T2-weighted sequences in combination with Gd-DTPA. MR imaging with Gd-DTPA is recommended as the primary diagnostic tool for diagnosing lesions in the region of the oropharynx.

Adenoma↗
PubMed1986

[Stress myelography. A new functional study technic in diseases of the lumbar spinal canal].

To optimize functional diagnostics in lumbar syndromes a new myelographic technique was developed termed "loading myelography". During the procedure the patient stands with a 10 kg. weight on his outstretched arms. Based on the law of leverage the load exercised on the vertebral column is more than two and a half times of one-half of the body weight. The author tested the efficacy of the method in 119 patients suffering from disc prolapse, spinal canal stenosis, spondylolisthesis or arachnitis. The results of the conventional myelogram compared with myelography under load conditions demonstrate the value of the method: without load the diagnosis would have remained uncertain in 25% and in 18% load myelogram revealed a pathological finding although conventional myelography was normal. We consider as indications for load myelography: Discrepancy between clinical and conventional myelographic findings; clinically expected multisegmental lesions; spinal canal stenosis; and spondylolisthesis.

Humans↗
PubMed1994

A Monte Carlo study of grid performance in diagnostic radiology: task-dependent optimization for digital imaging.

A Monte Carlo computational model has been used to optimize grid design in digital radiography. The optimization strategy involved finding grid designs that, for a constant signal-to-noise ratio, resulted in the lowest mean absorbed dose in the patient. Different examinations were simulated to explore the dependence of the optimal scatter-rejection technique on the imaging situation. A large range of grid designs was studied, including grids with both aluminium and fibre interspaces and covers, and compared to a 20 cm air gap. The results show that the optimal tube potential in each examination does not depend strongly on the scatter-rejection technique. There is a significant dose reduction associated with the use of fibre-interspaced grids, particularly in paediatric radiography. The optimal grid ratio and strip width increase with increasing scattering volume. With increasing strip density, the optimal strip width decreases, and the optimal grid ratio increases. Optimal grid ratios are higher than those used today, particularly for grids with large strip density. It is, however, possible to identify grids of good performance for a range of strip densities and grid ratios provided the strip width is selected accordingly. The computational method has been validated by comparison with measurements with a caesium iodide image receptor.

Algorithms↗
PubMed2006

Verification of pacemaker automatic mode switching for the detection of atrial fibrillation and atrial tachycardia with Holter recording.

AIMS: Verification of the accuracy of onset, offset, and duration of automatic mode switching (AMS) of pacemakers compared with onset and end of atrial fibrillation (AF) or atrial tachycardia (AT). Correct pacemaker diagnosis of atrial tachyarrhythmias (AA) is indispensable for reliable automatic prevention and intervention algorithms of AA. METHODS AND RESULTS: Comparison was made of the AMS registration of the pacemaker-stored electrograms (EGMs) and the number and cumulative duration of these episodes with continuous 7-day Holter monitoring. Atrial sensitivity was kept at 0.5 mV and far field R-wave recognition in the atrial channel was excluded by blanking of this signal. Lead types were confined to leads with short-ring tip spacing (10-13.8 mm). During Holter monitoring, 18 of 57 included patients with standard reason for pacemaker implantation showed episodes of AF or AT. Cumulative duration of AF and AT from Holter was correctly interpreted by the pacemaker in 99.9% of the patients. All episodes of AF, as seen on the Holter recording, were recognized by the pacemaker (correlation 99.9%). During AF, multiple episodes of undersensing were detected. The number of AMS episodes was influenced by undersensing during AF. The influence of these short episodes of undersensing on the total duration of AF was trivial (cumulative duration of AF was 99.9% correct). In patients with AT without AF on Holter (n=7) and in contrast to the AF episodes, the cumulative AT duration did not correlate well (63%) with the Holter recordings. The number of AMS episodes in the setting of AT was influenced by the atrial tachycardia detection rate setting and the duration of the post-ventricular atrial blanking interval. CONCLUSION: The total duration of AF is correctly represented by the total duration of AMS and can be considered a reliable measure of total AF duration. AT duration was poorly correlated with AMS duration. The number of mode switches does not reflect the number of episodes of AF/AT. Increased memory capacity allowing the storing of all EGMs triggered by the initiation of AF/AT would be the ideal setting with which to optimize the diagnostic performance of pacemakers.

Aged↗
PubMed1994

Acute pancreatitis in a prisoner with AIDS. Bugs or drugs?

Acute pancreatitis has been the cause of death in several patients with AIDS and AIDS-related complex (ARC). Documented etiologies include several microorganisms and adverse drug reactions. We present a case of an HIV-positive prison inmate who died of acute necrotizing pancreatitis. Although he was infected with Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare, it is more likely that 2',3'-dideoxyinosine, an antiretroviral agent, induced pancreatitis. It is important to obtain a thorough pharmaceutical history in HIV-positive patients. Fatal medicinal reactions may result in death in ARC or AIDS patients. Documentation of opportunistic infection in AIDS patients may prove difficult and expensive, but costs may be minimized and diagnostic accuracy optimized if appropriate tissue samples, including lymph nodes, are submitted for histologic analysis.

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome↗
PubMed1998

Use of stress testing to evaluate patients with recurrent chest pain after percutaneous coronary revascularization.

Controversy exists regarding the diagnostic accuracy, optimal technique, and timing of noninvasive stress testing after percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). Many patients return with chest pain after PTCA, and because the incidence of restenosis has been reported to be as high as 50%, a noninvasive test with a high predictive value is needed to reduce the need for unnecessary coronary angiography. Studies have shown that the sensitivity and specificity of stress testing varies depending on the amount of time elapsed since the procedure. Soon after a successful PTCA, perfusion defects on nuclear imaging following exercise or pharmacologic stress may be detected in asymptomatic patients without angiographic restenosis. In many patients, abnormal stress myocardial perfusion scans will normalize spontaneously, and thus stress testing with nuclear imaging within 4 to 6 weeks of PTCA lacks specificity for detecting restenosis. In contrast, stress echocardiography which detects wall motion abnormalities rather than perfusion mismatch has been reported to offer more specific information on myocardial ischemia and restenosis early after PTCA. In patients who develop chest pain more than 6 weeks after PTCA, the ability to accurately identify restenosis is shared by both echocardiographic and nuclear imaging methods. The purpose of this review is to clarify the strengths, pitfalls, and prognostic value of different stress modalities and cardiac imaging techniques in patients who develop chest pain within 6 months of undergoing PTCA.

Angioplasty, Balloon, Coronary↗
PubMed2003

Diagnosis, treatment and control of Taenia solium cysticercosis.

PURPOSE OF REVIEW: Taenia solium taeniasis/cysticercosis is now recognized as a major public health problem in most developing countries because of its association with seizures. Major advances in the diagnosis and epidemiology of taeniasis/cysticercosis have occurred in recent years. However, despite abundant literature on the subject, many questions remain unanswered including the role of anti-parasitic therapy and the potential for long-term control or elimination of the disease in field conditions following active interventions. RECENT FINDINGS: Recent advances have included improved knowledge of the availability and optimization of diagnostic tools for the tapeworm stage, a better understanding of the meaning of antibody serology, the introduction of antigen detection assays, a consensus on the use of antiparasitic medication, awareness of inflammation and chronic scars around calcified cysts, population-based neuroimaging studies, application of control measures, and progress in the development of a pig vaccine. SUMMARY: Neurocysticercosis is now much better understood than it was a few years ago. Infection and disease are now classified in terms of parasite viability, resulting in multiple and diverse clinical entities, each of which has a proper prognosis and management. As a result of this, the interpretation of diagnostic assays and imaging examinations is much more coherent. New aspects of this interesting disease have been recognized, mainly in relation to the frequency of calcified neurocysticercosis and its potential association with symptomatic relapses. Consensus diagnostic and treatment schemes have been proposed, and promising alternatives for control are currently being tested in several countries.

Animals↗
PubMed2006

Assessment of bone union/nonunion in an experimental model using microcomputed technology.

BACKGROUND: High-resolution microcomputed tomography (microCT) is one of the most recent technical developments to visualize and quantify primarily cancellous bone. Regarding bone formation, microCT is becoming increasingly important, although its reliability has not yet been evaluated. Our study had two goals: to develop a reproducible nonunion model and to determine the efficacy of microCT for the assessment of bone healing in this model. METHODS: The designed fracture model in the rat simulates secondary fracture healing. After plate fixation to the femur, diaphysis transverse middiaphyseal osteotomy was performed with a reciprocating saw, resulting in a 0.38-mm gap with a defect of bone and periosteum corresponding to the thickness of the blade. Proximally and distally to this gap, the periosteum was preserved. Thus, three separate zones were defined: proximal femur diaphysis with periosteum, gap, and distal femur diaphysis with periosteum. In the nonunion group (NM group), a model of impaired bone healing (nonunion), silicone foil was wrapped around the femur diaphysis to block any influence from surrounding tissue. Coverage of the bone repair site by thigh muscles was designed for a model of bone union (M group). Four weeks postoperatively, callus formation was determined by conventional anterior-posterior and lateral plain radiographs. Ten weeks later, a second x-ray series was done as the clinical standard evaluation method. Afterward, specimens were harvested for microCT examination (two-dimensional and three-dimensional [3D]). Biomechanical testing was carried out to determine fracture healing. RESULTS: Our model is highly reproducible and results in bone nonunion in five out of six cases (83.3%). In determining fracture site, plain radiographs the least reliable method in comparison to the biomechanical testing which is the most accurate reference method. In contrast, microCT (the 3D reconstruction) showed significant correlation (r = 1) to the results assessed by biomechanical testing, whereas microCT was correct in 100%. We found bone healing in five out of six animals in the M group verified by microCT (in accordance to biomechanical data). In the M group, significantly enhanced bone formation (50%) (p = 0.008) was observed within the osteotomy site (i.e. within the gap), but there was no difference in periosteal bone formation between the groups proximally and distally to the gap. Interestingly, we did not find statistically significant differences in mineralization. CONCLUSION: We conclude that microCT with 3D reconstruction is the optimal method diagnostic tool in fracture healing, especially in nonunion. Furthermore, direct coverage of the fracture site by muscle flaps results in a mineralized enhanced bone formation within the osteotomy site (i.e. within the gap). Skeletal muscle coverage hypothetically might have osteogenic augmentation potential, thus being able to prevent pseudoarthrosis.

Animals↗
PubMed1995

Indications for laparoscopic pelvic lymph node dissection in the staging of prostate cancer.

Laparoscopic pelvic lymph node dissection is increasing in popularity, in the absence of validated surgical indications. This retrospective study was performed to identify those patients who would benefit from laparoscopic pelvic lymphadenectomy. The case notes of 50 patients who underwent bilateral open pelvic lymphadenectomy with frozen section examination were reviewed. The patients were staged clinically as having A2 (16), B1 (20) and B2 (14) prostate cancer. Except for the two patients who had macroscopically involved pelvic lymph nodes at operation, all proceeded to total prostatectomy. Six patients were found to have positive pelvic nodes. Of the six, four patients were clinical stage B2, one was B1 and one was A2. The Gleason score of two of these six patients was greater than seven. The prostate specific antigen (PSA) levels correlated more with high tumour volume (i.e. grade C) rather than with D1 disease. Frozen section at the time of lymphadenectomy had a false negative rate of 2 of 6. We conclude that laparoscopic pelvic lymph node dissections (LPLND) should be performed where there is a high likelihood of nodal disease, viz. bulky tumours, poorly differentiated histology and a high PSA reading. We consider that such selective use of LPLND optimizes its diagnostic utility while minimizing its unnecessary application.

Frozen Sections↗
PubMed2000

Herpes simplex virus esophagitis in the immunocompetent host: an overview.

OBJECTIVE: The aim of this study was to delineate the characteristics of herpes simplex virus esophagitis (HSVE) in the immunocompetent host. METHODS: The study entailed a case report and a review of relevant literature through a MEDLINE search back to 1966. All cases with documented HSVE in patients without immunosuppression were selected and their characteristics defined. RESULTS: A total of 38 cases were identified. The age range was 1-76 yr and the male/female ratio 3.2/1. Antecedent exposure to HSV disease was described in eight cases (21.1%). A prodrome of systemic manifestations preceded the onset of esophageal symptoms in nine subjects (23.6%). Manifestations included acute odynophagia (76.3%), heartburn (50%), and fever (44.7%). Concurrent oropharyngeal lesions were uncommon (n = 8, 21.1%). Endoscopically, extensive involvement was common, showing friable mucosa (84.2%), numerous ulcers (86.8%), and whitish-exudates (39.5%). The distal esophagus was most commonly affected (63.8%). Microscopic examination showed characteristic viral cytopathology in 26 (68.4%) cases. Virus was recovered from esophageal-brushes or biopsies in 23 of 24 (95.8%) patients and immunocytochemistry was positive in seven of eight (87.5%) cases. Immune status was consistent with primary HSV infection in eight (21.1%) cases. The disease was self-limiting, although esophageal perforation and upper GI bleeding were reported in one case each. CONCLUSIONS: HSVE in the immunocompetent host is a rare but distinct entity, and is significantly more common in male subjects. It represents either primary infection or reactivation, and is characterized by acute onset, systemic manifestations, and extensive erosive-ulcerative involvement of the mid-distal esophagus. Histopathological examination alone may miss the diagnosis; adding tissue-viral culture optimizes the diagnostic sensitivity. It is usually self-limiting; whether antiviral therapy is beneficial remains unknown.

Acyclovir↗
PubMed2004

Diagnosing pulmonary embolism.

Objective testing for pulmonary embolism is necessary, because clinical assessment alone is unreliable and the consequences of misdiagnosis are serious. No single test has ideal properties (100% sensitivity and specificity, no risk, low cost). Pulmonary angiography is regarded as the final arbiter but is ill suited for diagnosing a disease present in only a third of patients in whom it is suspected. Some tests are good for confirmation and some for exclusion of embolism; others are able to do both but are often non-diagnostic. For optimal efficiency, choice of the initial test should be guided by clinical assessment of the likelihood of embolism and by patient characteristics that may influence test accuracy. Standardised clinical estimates can be used to give a pre-test probability to assess, after appropriate objective testing, the post-test probability of embolism. Multidetector computed tomography can replace both scintigraphy and angiography for the exclusion and diagnosis of this disease and should now be considered the central imaging investigation in suspected pulmonary embolism.

Acute Disease↗
PubMed2004

Radiographic examination of the small bowel: survey of practice patterns in the United States.

PURPOSE: To obtain understanding of the current practice patterns of academic and private radiology groups in the United States in radiographic examination of the small bowel. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The survey consisted of questions about small-bowel follow-through (SBFT) examinations, including frequency of overhead radiographs, use of fluoroscopic spot images, personnel performing fluoroscopy, practice settings, and degree of specialization. By using a standard sampling technique, the country was divided into nine regions, and one state from each region was randomly selected. The survey was mailed to 452 full-time chief technologists. The responses were tabulated, and statistical analysis of the data was performed with the chi(2) test. RESULTS: Completed questionnaires were returned by 236 (52%) of 452 chief technologists; 219 (93%) respondents, 176 (80%) in private and 43 (20%) in academic groups, indicated that their group performed SBFT studies. The studies were performed by general radiologists in 205 (94%) of the 219 groups and by gastrointestinal or abdominal radiologists in 11 (5%). Studies included overhead radiographs in all 219 groups, with spot images of the terminal ileum in 201 (92%). Thirty (14%) of 219 groups routinely obtained spot images of the remaining small bowel, 104 (48%) obtained spot images only if there were questionable findings on overhead radiographs, and 82 (37%) obtained no spot images. Eighteen (8%) of 219 groups performed peroral pneumocolon examinations and 80 (37%) performed enteroclysis. CONCLUSION: The majority of radiology groups perform SBFT studies. Regardless of the practice setting, these studies usually consist of a series of overhead radiographs, with routine spot images of the terminal ileum but not of the remaining small bowel. This approach may need to be reassessed in light of the American College of Radiology standards that all accessible small-bowel loops be visualized at fluoroscopy with representative radiographs to optimize the diagnostic yield of the examination.

Humans↗
PubMed1996

Diffuse adenomyosis: comparison of endovaginal US and MR imaging with histopathologic correlation.

PURPOSE: To compare the accuracy of endovaginal ultrasound (US) and magnetic resonance (MR) imaging in the diagnosis of adenomyosis. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The authors prospectively studied 119 consecutive patients undergoing hysterectomy. The endovaginal US scans and MR images were interpreted independently in a double-blind fashion. Imaging findings were compared with those at histopathologic examination. RESULTS: At histopathologic examination, adenomyosis was found in 28 of the 119 patients (24%). Sensitivity and specificity was 89% for endovaginal US and 89% for MR imaging. The positive predictive value was 71% for US and 65% for MR imaging. The negative predictive value was 96% for US and 95% for MR imaging. There was no statistically significant difference between the sensitivities (P = .65) and specificities (P = .75) of endovaginal US and MR imaging. The mean junctional zone (JZ) thickness on MR images in patients with and without proved adenomyosis was 15.0 mm +/- 4.9 and 7.7 mm +/- 3.3, respectively (P < .0001). When receiver operating characteristic curves were applied retrospectively, the optimal JZ value for the diagnosis of adenomyosis with MR imaging was > or = 12 mm. CONCLUSION: Endovaginal US was as accurate as MR imaging in the diagnosis of uterine adenomyosis. Use of a JZ thickness of > or= 12 mm should further optimize the diagnostic accuracy of MR imaging.

Double-Blind Method↗
PubMed2004

Detection of bladder cancer in urine by a tumor suppressor gene hypermethylation panel.

PURPOSE: Bladder cancer is potentially curable in the majority of cases; however, the prognosis for patients with advanced disease at presentation remains poor. Current noninvasive tests such as cytology lack sufficient sensitivity to detect low-grade, low-stage tumors. Silencing of tumor suppressor genes, such as p16(INK4a), VHL, and the mismatch repair gene hMLH1, has established promoter hypermethylation as a common mechanism for tumor suppressor inactivation in human cancers. It is also a promising new target for molecular detection in bodily fluids including urine, a readily accessible fluid known to contain bladder cancer cells. Methylation-specific PCR (MSP) can determine the presence or absence of methylation of a gene locus at a sensitivity level of up to 1 methylated allele in 1000 unmethylated alleles, appropriate for identifying cancer cell DNA in a bodily fluid. EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN: We first determined the frequency of hypermethylation of the Rb tumor suppressor gene by bisulfite sequencing and of the p16(INK4a), p14(ARF), APC, and RASSF1A tumor suppressor genes by MSP in 45 bladder cancers. We then designed a panel optimal for diagnostic coverage composed of the APC, RASSF1A, and p14(ARF) tumor suppressor genes. This panel was tested for detection of hypermethylation in matched sediment DNA from urine specimens obtained before surgery from the same 45 bladder cancer patients (2 Tis, 16 Ta, 10 T1, and 17 T2-4) as well as normal and benign control DNAs. RESULTS: Hypermethylation of at least one of three suppressor genes (APC, RASSF1A, and p14(ARF)) was found in all 45 tumor DNAs (100% diagnostic coverage). We detected gene hypermethylation in the matched urine DNA from 39 of 45 patients (87% sensitivity), including 16 cases that had negative cytology. No hypermethylation of APC, RASSF1A, or p14(ARF) was observed in normal transitional cell DNAs or in urine DNAs from normal healthy individuals and patients with inflammatory urinary disease (cystitis). Furthermore, an unmethylated gene in the tumor DNA was always found to be unmethylated in the matched urine DNA (100% specificity). CONCLUSIONS: Promoter hypermethylation of tumor suppressor genes is common in bladder cancer and was found in all grades and stages of tumors examined. Hypermethylation was detected in the urine DNA from 39 of 45 (87%) patients, including cases of early-stage disease amenable to cure. MSP may enhance early detection of bladder cancer using a noninvasive urine test.

Base Pair Mismatch↗
PubMedDate not supplied

Strategies for the laboratory diagnosis of some common causes of anaemia in elderly patients.

Anaemia is a common medical problem in elderly patients and is associated with an increased mortality and morbidity risk and a reduced quality of life. It is not known at which exact haemoglobin level investigations should be initiated in order to optimize the diagnostic efficacy. Serum ferritin determination remains the most accurate laboratory test for the diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia and its differential diagnosis with the anaemia of chronic disease. The introduction of the metabolites methylmalonic acid and homocysteine has made it possible to diagnose vitamin B(12) and folate deficiencies at an early subclinical stage, even without neurological and haematological symptoms, but the clinical importance of this 'biochemical' diagnosis is unclear. Other causes of anaemia, such as myelodysplastic syndromes and chronic renal insufficiency, will become more and more common in the elderly because of the ageing of the population. Although erythropoietin analysis has no clear diagnostic value at the moment, it has become more and more obvious that its therapeutic importance in elderly patients with chronic anaemia is increasing. A substantial number of patients have an unexplained anaemia. Whether this is disease related, or may be attributed to an age-related anaemia, is still a matter of debate, but it is advisable to perform an extensive laboratory, cytogenetic, and morphological investigation before one should assess the anaemia as unexplained.

Aged↗
PubMed2004

Normalization of negative T waves in the chronic stage of Q wave anterior myocardial infarction as a predictor of myocardial viability.

We investigated whether spontaneous normalization of negative T waves (TWN) on infarct-related ECG leads (IRLs) in the chronic phase of Q wave anterior myocardial infarction (MI) could be a predictor of residual viability in infarct areas. We prospectively studied 35 patients (age 60 +/- 8.6 years) in the chronic phase of Q wave anterior MI. Spontaneous TWN (group A, n = 23) were defined as negative T waves that became upright (> or =0.15 mV) in > or =2 IRLs. The presence of negative T waves (group B, n = 12) was defined as symmetric or biphasic negative T wave of > or =0.15 mV. All patients underwent same-day rest 201Tl-stress (99m)Tc sestamibi dual-isotope myocardial perfusion SPECT and 24-hour 201Tl reinjection imaging for ischemia and viability analysis. On scintigraphic examination, ischemic or viable myocardial segments were found in 18 patients (78%) with TWN and 4 patients (33%) of group B (p = 0.013). The use of TWN as a parameter had a marked influence on the sensitivity (82%), specificity (62%), positive (78%) and negative (67%) predictive values and accuracy (74%) of the diagnosis of viable myocardium. If we add the criterion of positive T waves in aVR with negative T waves to our criteria, we found that sensitivity (90%), positive (80%) and negative (80%) predictive values and accuracy (80%) increased. The results of our study suggest that analysis of TWN on IRLs is an accurate marker of residual viability and/or persistent peri-infarct ischemia in patients in the chronic stage of Q wave anterior MI, and therefore optimizes the diagnostic and therapeutic strategies after MI.

Electrocardiography↗