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PubMed1988

Signs and symptoms of mandibular dysfunction in shortened dental arches.

In this study subjects with shortened dental arches (SDA, n = 60), characterized by the absence of molar support, are compared with subjects with a complete dentition (n = 72) with respect to signs and symptoms of mandibular dysfunction. The subjective examination consisted of questions related to pain, noises within the joints and mobility of the lower jaw. The objective examination consisted of the registration of clicking of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) by bilateral palpation and measuring the maximal mouth opening. In spite of the finding that significantly more subjects of the SDA group under 40 years of age reported pain in or around the TMJ, it is concluded that in the population studied no convincing evidence was found that a SDA provokes signs and symptoms of mandibular dysfunction.

Adult↗
PubMed1996

Shortened dental arch therapy: views of consultants in restorative dentistry in the United Kingdom.

This paper reports the results of a study on the attitudes of the consultants in restorative dentistry (CRD) in the UK towards shortened dental arch therapy (SDAT). Data were collected by means of questionnaire, with a response of 67% achieved. The results indicate that 95% (n = 87) of the 91 participants in the study were of the opinion that SDA has a place in contemporary clinical practice. Eighty (88%) of the participants reported having prescribed SDA therapy during the last 5 years, the number of these patients requiring > 5 units of crown and bridgework being typically less than 25%. Forty-one (45%) of the participants reported patients being considered for SDAT expressing reservations about the outcome of their treatment, although around 75 (82%) of the participants indicated that SDAT was satisfactory in terms of oral function, comfort and well being. Experience of having to extend shortened dental arches following SDAT was limited to 34 (37%) of the participants. It is concluded that SDA is widely accepted but not widely practiced by CRDs in the UK and that, in patients satisfying existing criteria, the outcome of SDAT may be found to be acceptable in approximately 82% of cases.

Attitude of Health Personnel↗
PubMed2004

All dysuria is local. A cost-effectiveness model for designing site-specific management algorithms.

OBJECTIVE: To determine the cost-effectiveness of management strategies for dysuria in different office settings. DESIGN: Decision and cost-effectiveness analyses, assuming the payer's perspective. Data on disease prevalence, test characteristics, treatment efficacy, and adverse effects were drawn from the English language literature using medline searches and bibliographies. SETTING: Hypothetical primary care practice. PATIENTS: Otherwise healthy, nonpregnant women with symptoms of dysuria, urgency, and frequency. INTERVENTIONS: All reasonable combinations of urinalysis, urine culture, pelvic examination, chlamydia and gonorrhea cultures, and empiric treatment with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. RESULTS: The cost-effectiveness of strategies varied substantially among different patient settings. In all settings, empiric trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for all patients was least expensive and least effective. Most testing increased both cost and effectiveness. Compared to empiric antibiotics, performing pelvic examination and urine culture for women with normal urinalyses had a marginal cost-effectiveness ratio of $4 to $32 per symptom-day avoided (SDA). Adding urine culture for patients with pyuria had a marginal cost of $34 to $107 per SDA, which fell to $40/SDA when the prevalence of resistance to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole exceeded 40%. Pelvic examination and urine culture for all patients regardless of urinalysis results achieved the greatest benefit but at the highest cost (>$300 per SDA). CONCLUSIONS: In otherwise healthy women with symptoms of dysuria and no vaginal complaints, performing pelvic exam and urine culture based on urinalysis offers a reasonable alternative to empiric therapy. Other testing may be warranted, depending on antibiotic resistance and the value of avoiding a day of dysuria.

Acute Disease↗
PubMed1995

Characterization of a DNA fragment carrying the raw starch-digesting alpha-amylase and salt-dependent alpha-amylase genes from Bacillus circulans F-2.

A 5.4 kb HindIII DNA fragment carrying the gene encoding raw starch-digesting alpha-amylase (RSDA), has been previously cloned from Bacillus circulans F-2 and expressed in Escherichia coli [Kim et al. (1990) Biochim. Biophys. Acta 1048, 2233-2238]. Interestingly, when the cell extract of E. coli harboring a plasmid carrying this fragment was incubated with 1 M NaCl, it exhibited about 10 times higher enzyme activity than when assayed without NaCl. Differential zymograms showed two different amylase activities: one for RSDA and the other for a salt-dependent alpha-amylase (SDA). Even though RSDA activity was detected without NaCl, SDA activity was detected only in high concentrations of NaCl. SDA activity was fully detected at above 1 M NaCl. Results from subcloning of the genes, fractionation analysis of cell extracts, and immunological assays clearly suggested that the two amylases are genetically distinct and that genes for both enzymes are closely linked on the 5.4 kb DNA fragment.

Bacillus↗
PubMedDate not supplied

Nutritional screening tools for CAPD patients: are computers the way forward?

UNLABELLED: The aim of this study was to develop a computer programme (CP) to identify CAPD patients at risk of malnutrition as well as screen monthly biochemical results of transplant (tx), haemodialysis (HD), CAPD and nephrology (Ne) patients for abnormal levels such as hyperkalaemia. METHODS: The CP was designed using the programme Proton. Proton can automatically download biochemical results from pathology making it possible to generate a list of patients with results outside a desired biochemical range in accordance with national renal standards for adult patients. Biochemical measures of nutritional status were used to define malnutrition as 2 or more results outside of these parameters (see Table 1): 10% weight loss, Kt/V < 1.9, normalised protein catabolic rate (nPCR) < 1.2: predialysis urea < 15 mmol/L, phosphate (PO4) < 0.75 mmol/L, potassium (K), < 3.3 mmol/L. The CP was compared with standardised dietetic assessments (SDA) for validity. An SDA includes a review of medical, social history, biochemistry (blood and urine), dialysis prescriptions, treatment plans, medications, weight changes, BMI, dietary intake compared to therapeutic guidelines with documented aims. The therapeutic guidelines used to complete dietary assessment include: protein 1.2-1.5 g/kg Ideal Body Weight (IBW), energy: aim for BMI of 20-25 kg/m2, sodium: 100-120 mmol/L, K: 1 mmol/kg IBW, fluid: urine output + medical advice, PO4: 175-200 mg of PO4/10 g of protein. 3005 patients from Richard Bright Renal Unit in Bristol, England, including 4 Satellite HD units, had blood results screened for abnormal levels using CP (see Table 1). In the clinic setting, the length of time taken to review biochemical results was measured before and after implementation. RESULTS: The CP identified 88% of CAPD patients at risk of malnutrition compared with 67% by SDA. The time taken to look up biochemical results of patients attending the outpatient clinics was reduced by approximately 30 minutes leaving only the diet history computer screen to review for each patient. DISCUSSION: The CP should be compared with subjective global assessment (SGA) for validity in the identification of malnutrition. Serum cholesterol, prealbumin, protein equivalent of total nitrogen appearance (nPNA), C reactive protein (CRP) and bicarbonate should be incorporated into the CP in order to improve its specificity. CONCLUSION: Using the present parameters, the CP over diagnosed the number of CAPD patients at risk of malnutrition. However, the CP improves time management and rationalisation of dietetic activity by screening abnormal biochemistry.

Adult↗
PubMedDate not supplied

A haemodialysis nutritional screening tool for nurses--a pilot study.

The purpose of the study was to pilot a nurse-performed nutritional screening tool (NST) for dialysis patients in order to identify nutritionally at-risk patients. Haemodialysis (HD) patients are at risk of nutritional-related problems. Nutritional screening by nurses may assist in the early recognition of and response to these problems. An NST was developed using 9 screening parameters. (BMI, weight change, poor appetite, GI symptoms, albumin, pre-dialysis urea, K+, PO4++, HbA1c). The NST was compared with Standard Dietitian Assessment (SDA). 44 HD patients were screened with the NST and then with SDA. The tool showed sensitivity of 0.7 (95%CI+/- 0.21) and a specificity of 0.77 (95%CI+/-0.16). Reliability was low (alpha = .18). Alpha increased to 0.32 if pre-dialysis urea was removed from the tool and increased to 0.48 if weight loss, appetite, K+ and PO4++ were used alone. The pilot study showed a low reliability of the NST compared with SDA. With further analysis and modifications, the NST has the potential to assist nutritional screening by nurses in dialysis centres that have limited dietetic access.

Humans↗
PubMed1982

An in-vivo study of normal wrist kinematics.

The motion of the hand relative to a reference frame embedded in the radius is described using the screw displacement axis (SDA) concept. A three-dimensional sonic digitizer was utilized in a study of the dominant wrist of 15 normal subjects to determine the location and orientation of the SDAs based on the endpoints of flexion-extension motion (FEM) and radial-ulnar deviation (RUD) of the hand. The length of the common perpendicular between the SDAs of FEM and RUD was as large as 6 mm in some individuals; however, in some subjects the FEM SDA was distal of the RUD SDA while in others it was proximal. Considering the group of 15 subjects, the SDAs of FEM and RUD for the normal group nearly intersect in the head of the capitate in the neutrally positioned wrist and forearm.

Biomechanical Phenomena↗
PubMed2006

Role of mRNA stability in growth phase regulation of gene expression in the group A streptococcus.

The impressive disease spectrum of Streptococcus pyogenes (the group A streptococcus [GAS]) is believed to be determined by its ability to modify gene expression in response to environmental stimuli. Virulence gene expression is controlled tightly by several different transcriptional regulators in this organism. In addition, expression of most, if not all, GAS genes is determined by a global mechanism dependent on growth phase. To begin an analysis of growth-phase regulation, we compared the transcriptome 2 h into stationary phase to that in late exponential phase of a serotype M3 GAS strain. We identified the arc transcript as more abundant in stationary phase in addition to the sag and sda transcripts that had been previously identified. We found that in stationary phase, the stability of sagA, sda, and arcT transcripts increased dramatically. We found that polynucleotide phosphorylase (PNPase [encoded by pnpA]) is rate limiting for decay of sagA and sda transcripts in late exponential phase, since the stability of these mRNAs was greater in a pnpA mutant, while stability of control mRNAs was unaffected by this mutation. Complementation restored the wild-type decay rate. Furthermore, in a pnpA mutant, the sagA mRNA appeared to be full length, as determined by Northern hybridization. It seems likely that mRNAs abundant in stationary phase are insensitive to the normal decay enzyme(s) and instead require PNPase for this process. It is possible that PNPase activity is limited in stationary phase, allowing persistence of these important virulence factor transcripts at this phase of growth.

Gene Expression Regulation, Bacterial↗
PubMed1999

Performance characteristics of the BDProbeTec system for direct detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex in respiratory specimens.

Strand displacement amplification (SDA) technology has been established in a fully automated system known as BDProbeTec. Target sequences of the insertion sequence IS6110 and the 16S rRNA gene are simultaneously amplified, which thus allows the detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex and, as an additional option, of most Mycobacterium species. Detection occurs via a chemiluminescent microwell assay that employs the simultaneous hybridization and capture of SDA products with a biotinylated capture probe and an alkaline phosphatase detector probe. We have evaluated the performance of the BDProbeTec system in detecting M. tuberculosis complex by testing 799 respiratory specimens and comparing the results to those obtained by conventional diagnostic techniques, i.e. , microscopy and culture (solid and radiometric media). M. tuberculosis was cultivated from 41 specimens, of which 28 (68.4%) were smear positive and 13 (31.6%) were smear negative. The overall sensitivity of the SDA assay was 97.6% (for smear-positive specimens, 100%; for smear-negative specimens, 92.3%), and specificity was 95. 0%. After resolution of the discrepancies by studying the patients' clinical data, sensitivity and specificity were 97.9 and 96.5%, respectively, and positive and negative predictive values were 63.9 and 99.9%, respectively. These preliminary data demonstrate that the BDProbeTec system has promising performance characteristics with respiratory specimens and that it allows the detection of M. tuberculosis complex within hours.

Adult↗
PubMed2003

Detection of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae by strand displacement amplification and relevance of the amplification control for use with vaginal swab specimens.

Vaginal swab specimens may be preferable to cervical swab or urine specimens for the detection of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae because of the ease of specimen collection and transport. The purpose of this study was to evaluate whether vaginal swab specimens are equivalent to cervical swab specimens for the detection of N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis by the Becton Dickinson strand displacement amplification assay (SDA) with the BDProbeTec ET instrument and then to evaluate the use of the amplification control in a clinical research setting. In the first phase, vaginal and cervical swab specimens were obtained from 455 symptomatic women aged 18 to 40 attending primary health care and sexually transmitted disease clinics. Thirty-nine specimens (8.6%) had true-positive results for N. gonorrhoeae and 37 specimens (8.1%) had true-positive results for C. trachomatis. The sensitivity of SDA was superior to that of culture for the detection of N. gonorrhoeae with vaginal swab specimens and equivalent to that of the Roche PCR for the detection of C. trachomatis with cervical swab specimens. In the second phase of the study, 1,411 consecutively collected vaginal swab specimens were evaluated, with 357 (25.3%) specimens giving indeterminate readings on the basis of the result for the amplification control. The prevalences of sexually transmitted pathogens in vaginal swab specimens with and without use of the amplification control were 6.0 and 5.8%, respectively, for C. trachomatis and 3.1 and 3.0%, respectively, for N. gonorrhoeae. Although, vaginal swab specimens were equivalent to cervical swab specimens for the detection of N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis by SDA with respect to sensitivity, one in four vaginal swab specimens yielded an indeterminate result when the amplification control was used. The amplification control has limited value for use with vaginal swab specimens.

Cervix Uteri↗
PubMed1985

In vitro resistance to dexamethasone of basophils from patients receiving long-term steroid therapy.

Previous studies have shown that in vitro culture of human basophils for 24 h with physiologic concentrations of glucocorticoids leads to a pronounced inhibition of the subsequent release of histamine or leukotrienes when the cells are challenged with anti-IgE. However, both acute and chronic therapy in vivo with steroids fails to lead to an impairment of subsequent histamine release in vitro. To test whether the failure of in vivo steroid therapy to inhibit subsequent in vitro histamine release was due to the selection of a subpopulation of basophils that responded normally to anti-IgE but were resistant to steroids, the in vitro sensitivity to inhibition of mediator release by steroids in basophils obtained from normal patients as well as patients receiving chronic steroid therapy was studied. Basophils from steroid-dependent asthmatics (SDA) who had been receiving steroid doses orally of 7.5 to 50 mg equivalents of prednisone per day (mean, 19 mg), patients with collagen vascular disease (CVD) who had been receiving steroids orally of 4 to 80 mg equivalents (mean, 25 mg), non-steroid-dependent asthmatics (NSDA), and normal subjects were prepared, and their in vitro response to the potent glucocorticoid, dexamethasone, was determined. Dexamethasone was considerably more effective as an inhibitor of histamine release from basophils of normal subjects and NSDA than from basophils of SDA and patients with CVD. Because this was true in both SDA and patients with CVD, it seems most likely to be the result of the treatment with steroids rather than the underlying disease processes. Such a finding may be the result of a steroid-induced selection process by which sensitive cells are removed from the bloodstream in steroid-treated persons.

Adult↗
PubMed1991

Lack of effects of viral sialoadenitis and depletion of epidermal growth factor on initiation of hepatic carcinogenesis in the rat.

Sialodacryoadenitis (SDA) is a commonly-encountered coronaviral infection in laboratory rats that causes acute destruction of submandibular salivary glands. SDA results in depletion of salivary epidermal growth factor (EGF) and may thereby affect EGF-dependent cell growth processes. The purpose of this study was to determine the effects of SDA virus (SDAV) infection on the growth factor-dependent stages of experimental liver carcinogenesis. Rats were injected ip with the carcinogen diethylnitrosamine (DENA) at 1, 2, or 3 weeks following inoculation with SDAV. Uninfected control rats were treated only with DENA. The salivary glands of SDAV-inoculated and control rats were stained using the immunoperoxidase method for the detection of EGF. Residual submandibular salivary gland lesions and focal depletion of EGF were still evident in affected submandibular glands for up to 42 days after SDAV infection. Serum EGF concentrations measured at 9, 28, and 42 days following SDAV inoculation were reduced, but were not significantly different in comparison with non-inoculated, DENA-treated control rats. Initiated hepatocytes were detected 21 days after DENA treatment in formalin-fixed sections by an immunoperoxidase stain for the P isoenzyme of the enzyme glutathione S-transferase (GST-P). There was no significant difference in the number of foci of GST-P positive cells in a comparison of initiated cells in SDAV-inoculated and non-inoculated rats. Based on this model, concurrent infection with SDAV does not appear to have any significant effects on the initial stages of chemical hepatocarcinogenesis in the rat.

Animals↗
PubMed1989

Sequential changes in the harderian and exorbital lacrimal glands in Wistar rats infected with sialodacryoadenitis virus.

A sequential light and electron microscopic study of the exorbital and Harderian lacrimal glands was done on 2.5- to 15-month-old Wistar rats exposed to sialodacryoadenitis (SDA) virus. Typical coronaviral particles were readily demonstrated in cytoplasmic vesicles of Harderian and exorbital glands examined at 6 days post-inoculation. Lesions were seen in a relatively high percentage of lacrimal glands in infected animals of all ages, with no obvious age-related variations in the incidence and extent of changes. Lesions frequently persisted for a longer interval post-exposure in lacrimal glands than in salivary glands. The persistence of lesions commonly seen in Harderian glands was attributed, at least in part, to the cytotoxic effects of porphyrin-containing secretions released during the acute necrotizing stages of the disease. The persistence of lesions in some lacrimal glands indicates that they are useful tissues for microscopic examination for the retrospective provisional diagnosis of SDA. Persistent lesions also indicate that normal functions of these glands may be compromised for up to several weeks following outbreaks of SDA.

Age Factors↗
PubMed1996

Evaluation of perospirone (SM-9018), a novel serotonin-2 and dopamine-2 receptor antagonist, and other antipsychotics in the conditioned fear stress-induced freezing behavior model in rats.

We studied the effects of perospirone (SM-9018), a novel serotonin-2 (5-HT2) and dopamine-2 (D2) receptor antagonist (SDA), on conditioned fear stress (CFS)-induced freezing behavior in rats and compared its actions with those of other antipsychotics. Exposure of rats to the environment previously paired with foot shock induced marked freezing behavior, which was reduced by the anxiolytic diazepam (0.1-3 mg/kg, p.o.) or antidepressants, desipramine and imipramine (10-100 mg/kg, p.o.). Perospirone at 0.3-3 mg/kg, p.o. significantly attenuated the CFS-induced freezing behavior in a dose-dependent manner, while the effect was reduced at the higher dose of 6 mg/kg. Other SDA-type antipsychotics, clozapine (1-30 mg/kg, p.o.) and risperidone (0.03-1 mg/kg, p.o.), and selective 5-HT2 antagonists, ritanserin (0.1-1 mg/kg, p.o.) and ketanserin (0.3-1 mg/kg, p.o.), all reduced the freezing behavior with U-shaped dose-response curves. However, neither conventional antipsychotic, haloperidol (0.1-3 mg/kg, p.o.), chlorpromazine (3-100 mg/kg, p.o.), thioridazine (3-100 mg/kg, p.o.), mosapramine (3-100 mg/kg, p.o.) nor tiapride (30-1000 mg/kg, p.o.) reduced the CFS-induced freezing behavior. In addition, subacute treatment of rats with perospirone (1-10 mg/kg/day) or imipramine (30 mg/kg/day) for 2 weeks prevented the induction of the freezing behavior by CFS. These findings suggest that SDA-type antipsychotics including perospirone are effective for the treatment of mood disturbances such as anxiety and depressive mood associated with schizophrenia and have a broader efficacy profile as compared with the conventional antipsychotics.

Animals↗
PubMed2001

The detection of Chlamydia trachomatis by DNA amplification methods in urine samples from men with urethritis.

Our objective was to compare 3 deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) amplification methods for the diagnosis of chlamydial infection with an enhanced enzyme immunoassay (EIA) method for antigen detection in urine samples, from men with non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU) attending a busy inner city genitourinary medicine centre. Urethral swabs and urine samples were collected from 346 male patients with NGU attending the clinic. All swabs and urines were tested for chlamydial infection (CT) using the EIA (Dako PCE immunoassay). Three aliquots of the urine samples were stored immediately at -70 degrees C for subsequent testing by: Amplicor polymerase chain reaction (PCR) (Hoffmann-La Roche, Switzerland); the amplified Chlamydia trachomatis assay (AMP CT) using transcription mediated amplification (TMA) (GenProbe, USA); and BDProbeTecET using the strand displacement assay (SDA) (Becton Dickinson, USA). The positive rate for the 3 amplified assays PCR, TMA and SDA (on urine) was 88/346 (25.4%), 80/346 (23.1%) and 88/346 (25.4%), respectively compared to 56/346 (16.2%) by EIA on urethral swabs, the current means of diagnosis in this laboratory. Thirty-one samples were positive in 2 or more of the amplification assays but negative in the EIA, 50 positives (53% sensitivity) detected in the urine samples by the EIA assay were detected by all 3 of the amplified assays. Three samples were positive by PCR only, 5 were positive by TMA only and 7 were positive by SDA only. DNA amplification assays are superior to standard immunoassays for the diagnosis of C. trachomatis infections in urine samples. Urine samples are suitable for use in these amplified assays to detect C. trachomatis. Freezing of samples before testing reduces the rate of inhibition reported in other published studies.

Chlamydia Infections↗
PubMed2006

Gut vagal afferents are not necessary for the eating-stimulatory effect of intraperitoneally injected ghrelin in the rat.

Ghrelin is unique among gut peptides in that its plasma level increases during fasts and its administration stimulates eating. Although ghrelin physiology has been intensively studied, whether its eating-stimulatory effect arises from endocrine-neural signal transduction at peripheral or central sites remains unresolved. To address this issue, we tested the effects of subdiaphragmatic vagal deafferentation (SDA), the most complete and selective vagal deafferentation method available, on ghrelin-induced eating. SDA was verified with a cholecystokinin satiation test, retrograde labeling of vagal motor neurons in the dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus with fluorogold, and anterograde labeling of vagal afferents in the nucleus tractus solitarius with wheat germ agglutinin-horseradish peroxidase. Intraperitoneal injections of 10-40 microg/kg ghrelin stimulated eating as robustly in rats with verified complete SDA as in sham-operated controls. Ghrelin also stimulated eating in rats with total subdiaphragmatic vagotomies. We also recorded the electrophysiological responses of gastric load-sensitive vagal afferent neurons to intravenous ghrelin. Ghrelin (10 nmol) phasically (0-30 s) increased activity in two of seven gastric load-sensitive fibers in the absence of gastric loads and tonically (5-30 min) increased activity in only one fiber. Ghrelin did not affect any of the eight fibers tested in the presence of 1-3 ml gastric loads. We conclude that although phasic increases in plasma ghrelin may affect the activity of a fraction of gastric load-sensitive vagal afferents, the acute eating-stimulatory effect of intraperitoneal ghrelin does not require vagal afferent signaling.

Afferent Pathways↗
PubMed2003

The role of chlamydospores of Paracoccidioides brasiliensis.

The role of chlamydospores in the conversion process from a mycelial-to-yeast form using the slide culture method was studied. Three clinical isolates and two other isolates from armadillo, belonging to the fungal species Paracoccidioides brasiliensis, were cultured on Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA), potato dextrose agar (PDA) and brain heart infusion dextrose agar (BHIDA). Initially, the mycelial forms of each isolate were grown at 25 degrees C for 7, 14, 30 or 60 days on slide cultures and then the temperature was shifted to 35 degrees C. Interestingly, the slide cultures of all the isolates at 25 degrees C formed chlamydospores on either SDA or BHIDA, whereas, on PDA medium, aleurioconidia were formed. If the slide cultures on BHIDA were incubated at 35 degrees C for 7 to 14 days, multiple budding forms could be observed. This phenomenon was not evident in the slide cultures of SDA or PDA. The results of this morphological study indicate that in P. brasiliensis, chlamydospores may play an important role in the conversion process from a mycelial-to-yeast form.

Animals↗
PubMed2004

Control of growth and survival of Listeria monocytogenes on smoked salmon by combined potassium lactate and sodium diacetate and freezing stress during refrigeration and frozen storage.

In this study, we evaluated the antimicrobial effects of different levels of a potassium lactate (PL) plus sodium diacetate (SDA) mixture against the growth and survival of Listeria monocytogenes Scott A inoculated onto smoked salmon stored at 4, 10, and -20 degrees C. The effect of freezing stress on the growth kinetics of L. monocytogenes Scott A on smoked salmon at 4 and 10 degrees C was also investigated. The use of PL+SDA at all tested levels (1.5, 3.3, and 5% of a 60% commercial solution of PURASAL P Opti. Form 4) completely inhibited the growth of L. monocytogenes Scott A on smoked salmon stored at 4 degrees C during 32 days of storage. It also delayed the growth of L. monocytogenes Scott A on smoked salmon stored at 10 degrees C for up to 11 days, but a listeriostatic effect was observed only with 5% PURASAL P Opti. Form 4 at 10 degrees C after 11 days. Addition of PL+SDA at all tested levels decreased the surviving populations of L monocytogenes Scott A on smoked salmon during 10 months of frozen storage at -20 degrees C. Freezing stress significantly (P < 0.001) extended the lag time and delayed the growth of L. monocytogenes Scott A at both 4 and 10 degrees C. However, the effect of freezing stress was more significant at 4 degrees C than at 10 degrees C, indicating the importance of temperature control of smoked salmon during the retail storage period.

Animals↗