Biomedical subjects

Y Saitoh

Publications and source records attributed to Y Saitoh.

At least 127 records · Page 7Linked to original sources

PubMed1999

Ramosetron vs granisetron for the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting after laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

PURPOSE: To compare the efficacy of ramosetron with granisetron for the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) after laparoscopic cholecystectomy. METHODS: In a randomized, double-blind study, 80 female inpatients received 3 mg granisetron or 0.3 mg ramosetron i.v. (n=40 of each) at the completion of surgery The standardized anesthetic included isoflurane and nitrous oxide in oxygen. RESULTS: Complete response, defined as no PONV, during the first 24 hr (0-24 hr) after anesthesia was 85% with granisetron and 93% with ramosetron, respectively (P=0.241); the corresponding incidence during the next 24 hr (24-48 hr) after anesthesia was 63% and 90% (P=0.004). No clinically important adverse events due to the study drug were observed in any of the groups. CONCLUSION: Ramosetron was more effective than granisetron for prevention of PONV during 0-48 hr after anesthesia for laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

Adult↗

PubMed1999

Plastic surgical reconstruction of left main coronary artery.

OBJECTIVE(S): To report the early and mid-term results of surgical plasty of the left main coronary artery in 12 patients operated upon between 1993 and 1997. METHODS: The anterior approach was used in all patients. Saphenous vein (n = 4) of glutaraldehyde treated autologous pericardium (n = 8) were used as patch material. Additional coronary artery bypass grafting was performed in 7 patients, the first 3 as a safety back up, and for coexisting stenosis of other coronary branches not revascularized by the plastic procedure in the remaining 4. RESULTS: Pathologic specimens of the left main coronary artery in 5 revealed atheroma in 3 and myxomatous intimal thickening in 2. The left main coronary artery was widely patent angiographically in all patients prior to discharge. Six patients consented to angiographic restudy 5-40 months after the procedure and revealed excellent results in 5. One patient upon whom autologous pericardial patch had been used underwent percutaneous coronary angioplasty for restenosis of the left main coronary artery and a new lesion of the proximal left anterior descending branch 5 months after the operation. There were no late deaths nor other cardiac events. All patients were in CCS class 1 at their last follow-up. CONCLUSIONS: Surgical angioplasty of the left main coronary artery could be used to revascularize the left heart safely in patients with a discrete localized lesion of the left main coronary artery and is particularly useful in the face of unavailability of other conduits.

Aged↗

PubMed1999

Diagnostic imaging of early gallbladder cancer: retrospective study of 53 cases.

To diagnose early gallbladder carcinoma is difficult but essential to improve the survival of the patients with this cancer. Fifty-three early gallbladder cancers were macroscopically divided into protruding and flat types. The diagnostic devises [ultrasonography (US), computed tomography (CT), and drip infusion cholangiography (DIC)] were compared for their ability of early detection. The specimens were examined cytologically for diagnosis during operation and the p53 protein was investigated. Thirty-three cases were of the protruding type, eighteen of the flat type, and two unclassified. Carcinoma tended to be missed when gallstones were present. Preoperative diagnosis of the flat type was difficult. Tumor location did not always correlate with the preoperative diagnosis. Of the misdiagnosed cases of the protruding type, half were missed with US and CT and were not visualized clearly by DIC. Among the flat type cancers, only three had no abnormal findings by diagnostic imaging. Cytologic examination was effective, and p53 was expressed only in early carcinoma, not in adenoma or dysplasia. Even in the presence of gallstones or cholecystitis, any abnormal findings should make one suspicious of gallbladder cancer. Cytology and p53 expression may be useful for the intraoperative diagnosis, and a combination of diagnostic methods is important.

Adenoma↗

PubMed1999

Prognostic factors in surgical treatment of solitary brain metastasis after resection of non-small-cell lung cancer.

Patients with brain metastasis after resection of non-small-cell lung cancer usually have poor prognosis. A few such patients, however, survive for long periods after surgical resection of brain metastases. To evaluate the prognostic factors in resection of solitary brain metastasis from non-small-cell lung cancer, we reviewed 24 cases undergoing resection of solitary brain metastasis after resection of the primary site from 1977 to 1993. The patient population consisted of 20 men and four women ranging in age from 40 to 75 years old (average, 57.8 years old). None of the patients had systemic metastasis except in the brain at the time of brain surgery. The overall survival rates were 12.5% at 3 years and 8.3% at 5 years after brain surgery. The longest survival periods were 11.5 years after brain surgery and 15.4 years after lung surgery. The interval between lung and brain surgery (< or =360 days vs. >360 days), differentiation of primary cancer (poor vs. moderate), size of primary site (< or =5.0 cm vs. >5.0 cm), and operation of primary site (lobectomy vs. pneumonectomy) significantly affected survival as shown by univariate analysis (P<0.05). Other clinical factors (age, gender, histology, T- and N-status, 'resectability with curative intent' of the primary site, location of the brain metastasis and postoperative radiation therapy) did not affect survival. Multivariate analysis using Cox's proportional hazards model indicated that an interval of more than 360 days between the two surgical procedures (hazard ratio = 0.2351, P = 0.0136) and lobectomy (hazard ratio = 0.5274, P = 0.0416) were independent prognostic factors. In conclusion, patients with solitary brain metastasis from non-small-cell lung cancer without other organ metastasis, in whom relapse in the brain occurred more than 1 year after resection of the primary site and in whom lobectomy was performed, should be treated surgically to maximize the chance of prolonged survival.

Adenocarcinoma↗

PubMed1999

High level of adenosine A1 receptor-like immunoreactivity in the CA2/CA3a region of the adult rat hippocampus.

We describe the immunocytochemical distribution of adenosine A1 receptors in the rat hippocampus. Adenosine A1 receptor-like immunoreactivity was seen on the cell soma and dendrites of pyramidal cells and the cell soma and proximal part of dendrites of granule cells, but not on glial cells. Developmentally, adenosine A1 receptor-like immunoreactivity was diffuse on postnatal day 7 and increased in intensity in individual cells by day 21. In the CA2/CA3a region, the adult pattern of A1 receptor distribution was established by day 28. In the adult rat hippocampus, rostrocaudal inspection revealed that immunoreactivity in CA2/CA3a was greatest. Confocal microscopy revealed differences in the staining patterns for the adenosine A receptor and synaptophysin, a marker of presynaptic terminals. This result suggests that the adenosine A1 receptor might have postsynaptic physiological functions. Double-labeling of adenosine A1 receptors and anterogradely-labeled fibers from the supramammillary nucleus showed that the fibers from the supramammillary nucleus terminate directly on the cell soma of the A1 receptor-immunopositive neurons in CA2/CA3a and the dentate gyrus. These results indicate that the adenosine A 1 receptor in CA2/CA3a and the dentate gyrus are in a position to regulate hippocampal theta activity and that resultant strong synaptic depression in CA2/CA3a could play a role in regulating the intrinsic signal flow between CA3 and CA1.

Adenosine↗

PubMed1999

Combination of granisetron and droperidol in the prevention of nausea and vomiting after middle ear surgery.

STUDY OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the efficacy and safety of granisetron-droperidol combination for the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) after middle ear surgery. DESIGN: Prospective, randomized, double-blind study. SETTING: University hospital. PATIENTS: 150 ASA physical status I patients (108 females, 42 males) scheduled for elective middle ear surgery. INTERVENTIONS: Patients received granisetron 40 micrograms/kg (n = 50), droperidol 20 micrograms/kg (n = 50), or granisetron 40 micrograms/kg plus droperidol 20 micrograms/kg (n = 50) intravenously immediately before induction of anesthesia. MEASUREMENTS AND MAIN RESULTS: A standard general anesthetic technique and postoperative analgesia were used throughout the study. A complete response, defined as no PONV and no need for another rescue antiemetic, from 0 to 3 hours after anesthesia occurred in 78%, 56%, and 94% of patients who had received granisetron, droperidol, and granisetron plus droperidol, respectively. The corresponding incidence between 3 and 24 hours after anesthesia was 80%, 52% and 94%. Thus, a complete response within the first 24-hour postanesthetic period was greater in patients receiving granisetron-droperidol combination than in those receiving granisetron alone or droperidol alone (p < 0.05). No clinically adverse events were observed in any of the groups. CONCLUSIONS: A combination of granisetron and droperidol is more effective than droperidol or granisetron alone for the prevention of PONV after middle ear surgery.

Adult↗

PubMed1999

Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery does not deteriorate postoperative pulmonary gas exchange in spontaneous pneumothorax patients.

OBJECTIVES: Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) is generally recognized as a less invasive method than thoracotomy. However, the influence of VATS on postoperative pulmonary gas exchange has yet to be evaluated. METHODS: Thirty eight patients with spontaneous pneumothorax were randomized into bullectomy by VATS (n = 20) or axillary thoracotomy (n = 18). Gas exchange was assessed by using hot wire mass spectrometer, and blood gas analysis preoperatively and postoperatively at 1, 3, 6, 12, 24, and 48 h and on days 4 and 6. Post operative pain control was managed by continuous epidural morphine injection and administration of diclofenac sodium orally or suppository. Postoperative atelectasis was assessed by daily chest roentgenograms. RESULTS: VATS patients had continuously higher PaO2 than axillary thoracotomy at 12, 48 h and day 4 postoperatively (P < 0.05). Alveolar-arterial oxygen tension gradient in VATS patients was significantly less than that in patients with axillary thoracotomy from the 6th h throughout to the 4th day postoperatively (P < 0.01). Use of postoperative analgesics and the incidence of peripheral atelectasis were more frequent in patients with axillary thoracotomy. CONCLUSIONS: Bullectomy via VATS was less deleterious to pulmonary gas exchange. Axillary thoracotomy caused worsening of gas exchange postoperatively due to incisional pain, chest wall deformity, and peripheral atelectasis.

Adult↗

PubMed1999

Relationship between stimulating current and accelographic train-of-four response at the great toe.

We investigated the accelographic train-of-four response evaluated at the great toe at varying stimulating currents. Fifteen adult patients undergoing elective general anaesthesia were studied. The mean current at which a supramaximal T1 value could be elicited was > 49 (9) mA [mean (SD)]. Ratios of accelographic T1 values at 50, 40, 30, 20 and 10 mA to accelographic T1 value at 60 mA were 0.90 (0. 18), 0.58 (0.37), 0.38 (0.37), 0.19 (0.26) and 0.00 (0.00), respectively [mean (SD), p < 0.05 for 50 mA vs. 30, 20 and 10 mA, p < 0.05 for 40 mA vs. 20 and 10 mA, and p < 0.05 for 30 vs. 10 mA]. Threshold currents for train-of-four (the lowest currents at which any train-of-four response could be elicited) before and after induction of anaesthesia were 30 (10) and 31 (10) mA, respectively. The train-of-four ratio (T4/T1) measured at varying currents did not differ significantly. However, in the patients in whom threshold currents for train-of-four were 40, 30 and 20 mA, the train-of-four ratio recorded at the threshold current was significantly less than at 50 mA. We conclude that at the great toe, the mean current at which a supramaximal response to train-of-four can be yielded is as high as > 49 mA. The mean threshold currents for TOF before and after induction of anaesthesia were 30 and 31 mA, respectively. Train-of-four ratio measured at the threshold current is less than that at 50 mA.

Anesthesia, General↗

PubMed1999

Complement sensitivity of erythrocytes in a patient with inherited complete deficiency of CD59 or with the Inab phenotype.

We investigated the complement sensitivity of erythrocytes from three patients, one with inherited complete deficiency of CD59, one with the Inab phenotype, and one with paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH). The complement lysis sensitivity units on the erythrocytes were 11.7, 4.6, and 47.6 for inherited CD59 deficiency, Inab phenotype, and PNH, respectively. Two-colour flow cytometric analysis showed that the erythrocytes from the three patients consisted of a single population negative for CD59, negative for decay accelerating factor (DAF), and negative for both proteins, respectively. In addition, only the Inab phenotype patient had no haemolysis in vivo. These facts suggest that CD59 deficiency plays a more important role than DAF deficiency in complement-mediated haemolysis in vitro and in vivo, and that deficiency of both proteins, but not CD59 or DAF alone, causes complement sensitivity corresponding to that of PNH III erythrocytes in vitro.

Adult↗

PubMed1999

Anti-emetic efficacy of prophylactic granisetron compared with perphenazine for the prevention of post-operative vomiting in children.

We have compared the efficacy of granisetron with perphenazine in the prevention of vomiting after tonsillectomy with or without adenoidectomy in children. In a prospective, randomized, double-blind study, 90 paediatric patients, ASA I, aged 4-10 years, received granisetron 40 mg kg-1 or perphenazine 70 mg kg-1 (n = 45 each) intravenously immediately after an inhalation induction of anaesthesia. A standard general anaesthetic technique was employed throughout. A complete response, defined as no emesis with no need for another rescue antiemetic, during the first 3 h (0-3 h) after anesthesia was 87% with granisetron and 78% with perphenazine (P = 0.204). The corresponding incidence during the next 21 h (3-24 h) after anaesthesia was 87% and 62% (P = 0.007). No clinically serious adverse events were observed in any of the groups. We conclude that granisetron is a better anti-emetic than perphenazine for the long-term prevention of post-operative vomiting in children undergoing general anaesthesia for tonsillectomy.

Adenoidectomy↗

PubMed1999

Prophylactic therapy with combined granisetron and dexamethasone for the prevention of post-operative vomiting in children.

This study was undertaken to compare the efficacy and safety of granisetron, a 5-hydroxytryptamine type 3 receptor antagonist, and dexamethasone and each drug alone for the prevention of post-operative vomiting by children, with no history of motion sickness and/or previous post-operative vomiting, undergoing general inhalational anaesthesia for surgery (inguinal hernia and phimosis). In a randomized, double-blind manner, 150 children, ASA physical status 1, aged 4-10 years, were assigned to receive granisetron 40 mg kg-1, dexamethasone 150 mg kg-1, or granisetron 40 mg kg-1 plus dexamethasone 150 mg kg-1 intravenously immediately after inhalation induction of anaesthesia (n = 50 of each). A complete response, defined as no emesis and no need for another rescue anti-emetic during the first 24 h after anaesthesia, was 86% with granisetron, 68% with dexamethasone and 98% with granisetron plus dexamethasone, respectively (P < 0.05; overall Fisher's exact probability test). No clinically serious adverse events were observed in any of the groups. In conclusion, prophylactic therapy with combined granisetron and dexamethasone was more effective than was each anti-emetic alone for the prevention of vomiting after paediatric surgery.

Anesthesia, Inhalation↗

PubMed1999

Prevention of post-operative nausea and vomiting with combined granisetron and droperidol in women undergoing thyroidectomy.

We have compared the efficacy and safety of combined granisetron and droperidol with each anti-emetic alone for preventing post-operative nausea and vomiting after thyroidectomy. In a prospective, randomized, double-blind study, 180 women received granisetron 40 micrograms kg-1, droperidol 20 micrograms kg-1, or granisetron 40 micrograms kg-1 plus droperidol 20 micrograms kg-1 (n = 60 of each) intravenously immediately before induction of anaesthesia. A standard general anaesthetic technique and post-operative analgesia were used. A complete response, defined as no post-operative nausea and vomiting and no need for another rescue anti-emetic, during the first 24 h after anaesthesia occurred in 88%, 60% and 98% of patients who had received granisetron, droperidol and granisetron plus droperidol (P < 0.05; overall Fisher's exact probability test). No clinically important adverse events due to the drugs were observed in any of the groups. In summary, prophylactic use of combined granisetron and droperidol is more effective than each drug alone for the prevention of post-operative nausea and vomiting in female patients undergoing thyroidectomy.

Adult↗

PubMed1999

Combination of granisetron and droperidol for the prevention of vomiting after paediatric strabismus surgery.

This study was undertaken to compare the efficacy of granisetron plus droperidol with each antiemetic alone for the prevention of vomiting after paediatric strabismus surgery. In a prospective, randomized, double-blinded trial, 120 ASA physical status I children, aged 4-10 years, received granisetron 40 microg.kg- 1, droperidol 50 microg.kg- 1, granisetron 40 microg.kg- 1 plus droperidol 50 microg.kg- 1 (n=40 of each) intravenously after an inhalation induction of anaesthesia. A complete response, defined as no vomiting, no retching and no need for another rescue antiemetic medication, during 0-3 h after anaesthesia was 80% with granisetron, 45% with droperidol and 98% with granisetron plus droperidol, respectively; the corresponding incidence during 3-24 h after anaesthesia was 78%, 38% and 98% (P< 0.05; overall chi-squared test with Yates continuity correction). No clinically important adverse events were observed in any of the groups. In conclusion, a combination of granisetron and droperidol was more effective than granisetron or droperidol as a sole antiemetic for the prevention of postoperative vomiting in children undergoing strabismus repair.

Analysis of Variance↗

PubMed1999

Prevention of postoperative vomiting with granisetron in paediatric patients with and without a history of motion sickness.

A history of motion sickness is one of the patient-related factors associated with postoperative emesis. This prospective, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study was undertaken to assess the efficacy of granisetron, a selective 5-hydroxytryptamine type 3 receptor antagonist, for preventing postoperative vomiting after tonsillectomy in 120 children with (n = 60) and without (n = 60) a history of motion sickness. Patients received a single dose of granisetron (40 micrograms.kg-1) or placebo (saline) (n = 30 of each) intravenously after an inhalation induction of anaesthesia. A complete response, defined as no vomiting, no retching and no need for another rescue medication, during the first 24 h after anaesthesia was 77% and 13% in patients with a history of motion sickness who had received granisetron or placebo, respectively; the corresponding incidence was 83% and 40% in those without it (P < 0.05; chi 2 test with Yates' continuity correction). No clinically serious adverse effects due to the study drug were observed in any of the groups. In conclusion, prophylactic antiemetic therapy with granisetron is effective for preventing postoperative emesis in children with a history of motion sickness as well as in those without it.

Antiemetics↗

PubMed1999

Electromyographic assessment of neuromuscular block at the gastrocnemius muscle.

We have assessed neuromuscular block electromyographically at the gastrocnemius muscle and compared it with that at the abductor digiti minimi muscle in 60 adult patients undergoing cervical spine surgery under general anaesthesia. All patients were in the prone position. After vecuronium 0.2 mg kg-1, times to onset of neuromuscular block at the gastrocnemius and abductor digiti minimi muscles were mean 147 (SD 24) and 145 (14) s, respectively (ns). Times to return of the first response of the post-tetanic count (PTC1) at the gastrocnemius and abductor digiti minimi muscles were 27.7 (5.6) and 37.0 (5.9) min, respectively (P = 0.0001). Times to return of the first response of the train-of-four (TOF) at the gastrocnemius and abductor digiti minimi muscles were 41.0 (9.1) and 49.9 (8.7) min, respectively (P = 0.01). Recovery of PTC, T1/T0 and TOF ratio at the gastrocnemius muscle were significantly faster than at the abductor digiti minimi muscle.

Adult↗

PubMed1999

Tactile evaluation of fade of the train-of-four and double-burst stimulation using the anaesthetist's non-dominant hand.

We have studied detection of fade in response to train-of-four (TOF), double-burst stimulation3,3 (DBS3,3) or DBS3,2, assessed tactilely by the anaesthetist using the index finger of the non-dominant hand and the thumb of the patient, compared with that assessed when the index finger of the dominant hand was used. The probability of detection of any fade in response to TOF or DBS3,3 using the non-dominant hand was significantly less than when the dominant hand was used (P < 0.05). The probability of identification of fade in response to DBS3,2 assessed using the non-dominant hand was comparable with that evaluated using the dominant hand when TOF ratios were 0-0.9, but when TOF ratios reached 0.91-1.00, detection using the non-dominant hand was significantly less common than with the dominant hand (12% vs 33%; P < 0.05). Using the non-dominant hand, the probability of detection of fade in response to ulnar nerve stimulation was less than that with the dominant hand and only the absence of DBS3,2 fade ensured sufficient recovery of neuromuscular block.

Adult↗

PubMed1999

Post-tetanic count and train-of-four responses during neuromuscular block produced by vecuronium and infusion of nicardipine.

We have examined onset and recovery of neuromuscular block produced by vecuronium using either post-tetanic count (PTC), or the first twitch of the train-of-four (TOF) (T1/T0) and TOF ratio (T4/T1) during continuous infusion of nicardipine. Sixty adult patients were allocated to one of four groups of 15 patients each: nicardipine-PTC, nicardipine-TOF, control-PTC and control-TOF. In the nicardipine-PTC and nicardipine-TOF groups, nicardipine 0.03 mg kg-1 was given before vecuronium 0.1 mg kg-1 and a continuous infusion of nicardipine was started immediately at a rate of 2 micrograms kg-1 min-1. Mean time from administration of vecuronium to onset of neuromuscular block in the nicardipine-PTC and nicardipine-TOF groups was significantly shorter than in the control-PTC and control-TOF groups (166 (SD 39) vs 220 (28) s; P < 0.05). There was no significant difference in recovery of PTC between the nicardipine-PTC and control-PTC groups or in recovery of TOF ratio in the nicardipine-TOF and control-TOF groups. However, during recovery, T1/T0 in the nicardipine-TOF group was significantly less than that in the control-TOF group, 60-100 min after administration of vecuronium.

Adult↗

PubMed1999

Codon 72 polymorphism of p53 as a risk factor for patients with human papillomavirus-associated squamous intraepithelial lesions and invasive cancer of the uterine cervix.

Squamous intraepithelial lesions (SIL) and invasive cancer of the uterine cervix are thought to be a series of lesions derived from normal cervical squamous tissue. Infection by high risk human papillomavirus (HPV) and integration of viral DNA may initially lead normal cervical cells to become pre-malignant cells in SIL and result in cervical malignancies later on. High risk HPVs, including types 16 and 18, produce a viral protein, E6, which is required for viral replication in host cells. The E6 protein is able to bind to host p53 causing inactivation of its function through the mechanism of ubiquitin-dependent degradation. It has recently been reported that the extent of p53 dysfunction caused by HPVs depends on the status of a polymorphism at codon 72 of p53, Pro or Arg. In that study, it was demonstrated that a patient homozygous for the Arg allele had about a seven times higher risk of developing cervical cancer than a patient homozygous for Pro. In an attempt to confirm this result and elucidate whether this allelic deviation of the Arg genotype seen in invasive cervical cancer occurs in the pre-malignant lesion SIL, we analyzed 219 SIL and 101 invasive cancer samples from Japanese patients using a PCR-based assay. Samples from 88 SIL and 76 invasive cancers were identified as HPV-infected samples and used for further analyses. In these, the frequencies of Arg homozygotes were 31.8, 33.0 and 36.8% in controls, SIL and invasive cancer, respectively. The distributions of the different alleles of codon 72 (Pro/Pro, Pro/Arg and Arg/Arg) did not show significant differences between either control and SIL groups or control and invasive cancer groups. Also, no difference in the frequency of Arg/Arg genotype was detected even between the control and HSIL groups or control and invasive cancer infected with high risk HPVs groups. In conclusion, there was no obvious relationship between the Arg genotype at codon 72 of p53 and predisposition to HPV-associated cervical neoplasia.

Amino Acid Sequence↗