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T Shimoda

Publications and source records attributed to T Shimoda.

At least 91 records · Page 5Linked to original sources

Reappraisal of orthodox histochemistry for the diagnosis of minimal deviation adenocarcinoma of the cervix.

Minimal deviation adenocarcinoma (MDA), or adenoma malignum, of the uterine cervix is a diagnostically problematic disease because of the difficulty in differentiating it histologically from normal cervical glands. To evaluate the use of mucin phenotyping for differentiating MDA from other conditions, we performed alcian blue pH 2.5/periodic acid-Schiff (AB-PAS) staining and high iron diamine (HID)-AB staining on routinely processed sections of 11 MDAs, 20 unremarkable cervical glands, 9 cervical glandular hyperplasias occurring in association with mucinous ovarian tumors, and 41 conventional cervical adenocarcinomas. In all 11 MDAs and 11 conventional cervical adenocarcinomas, the tumor cell cytoplasm was stained diffusely red by PAS, indicating that MDA cells produce neutral mucin almost exclusively. The amount of acid mucins, both sulfomucin and sialomucin, was decreased markedly by HID-AB. For four MDAs, preoperative biopsy specimens also showed diffuse cytoplasmic neutral mucin. In contrast, the cytoplasm of constituent cells was stained purple to violet by AB-PAS in all unremarkable cervical glands and glandular hyperplasias, indicating that both acid and neutral mucins were produced in equal amounts, sulfomucin being stained predominantly by HID-AB. Of the 30 conventional cervical adenocarcinomas, 28 showed both acid and neutral mucins and two showed acid mucin only in goblet cells, or in part of the cytoplasm or cell surface of constituent cells, where acid mucin consisted predominantly of sulfomucin in 14 and sialomucin in 16. AB-PAS and HID-AB are simple and orthodox histochemical methods which are effective for differential diagnosis of MDA and can contribute to its early detection and treatment.

Adenocarcinoma↗

The Vienna classification of gastrointestinal epithelial neoplasia.

BACKGROUND: Use of the conventional Western and Japanese classification systems of gastrointestinal epithelial neoplasia results in large differences among pathologists in the diagnosis of oesophageal, gastric, and colorectal neoplastic lesions. AIM: To develop common worldwide terminology for gastrointestinal epithelial neoplasia. METHODS: Thirty one pathologists from 12 countries reviewed 35 gastric, 20 colorectal, and 21 oesophageal biopsy and resection specimens. The extent of diagnostic agreement between those with Western and Japanese viewpoints was assessed by kappa statistics. The pathologists met in Vienna to discuss the results and to develop a new consensus terminology. RESULTS: The large differences between the conventional Western and Japanese diagnoses were confirmed (percentage of specimens for which there was agreement and kappa values: 37% and 0.16 for gastric; 45% and 0.27 for colorectal; and 14% and 0.01 for oesophageal lesions). There was much better agreement among pathologists (71% and 0.55 for gastric; 65% and 0.47 for colorectal; and 62% and 0.31 for oesophageal lesions) when the original assessments of the specimens were regrouped into the categories of the proposed Vienna classification of gastrointestinal epithelial neoplasia: (1) negative for neoplasia/dysplasia, (2) indefinite for neoplasia/dysplasia, (3) non-invasive low grade neoplasia (low grade adenoma/dysplasia), (4) non-invasive high grade neoplasia (high grade adenoma/dysplasia, non-invasive carcinoma and suspicion of invasive carcinoma), and (5) invasive neoplasia (intramucosal carcinoma, submucosal carcinoma or beyond). CONCLUSION: The differences between Western and Japanese pathologists in the diagnostic classification of gastrointestinal epithelial neoplastic lesions can be resolved largely by adopting the proposed terminology, which is based on cytological and architectural severity and invasion status.

Adenoma↗

Two patients with occupational asthma who returned to work with dust respirators.

OBJECTIVES: To assess the efficacy of dust respirators in preventing asthma attacks in patients with occupational asthma (asthma induced by buckwheat flour or wheat flour). METHODS: The effect of the work environment was examined in two patients with occupational asthma with and without the use of a commercially available mask or a dust respirator. Pulmonary function tests were performed immediately before and after work and at 1 hourly intervals for 14 hours after returning to the hospital. RESULTS: In patient 1, environmental exposure resulted in no symptoms during and immediately after work, but coughing, wheezing, and dyspnoea developed after 6 hours. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) decreased by 44% 7 hours after leaving the work environment, showing only a positive late asthmatic reaction (LAR). In patient 2, environmental exposure resulted in coughing and wheezing 10 minutes after initiation during bread making, and PEFR decreased by 39%. After 7 hours, PEFR decreased by 34%. The environmental provocation tests in both patients were repeated after wearing a commercial respiratory. This resulted in a complete suppression of LAR in patient 1 and of immediate asthmatic reaction (IAR) and LAR in patient 2. CONCLUSIONS: Two patients with asthma induced by buckwheat flour or wheat flour in whom asthmatic attacks could be prevented with a dust respirator are reported. Dust respirators are effective in preventing asthma attacks induced by buckwheat flour and wheat flour.

Adult↗

Prognostic relevance of a histological grading system using MIB-1 for adult soft-tissue sarcoma.

Several histological grading systems have been proposed and found as strong indicators of outcome in soft-tissue sarcomas. However, a putative independent prognostic influence of recently developed biological and molecular markers remains to be established. This study investigated the prognostic relevance of a histological grading system based on the assessment of proliferative activity in adult soft-tissue sarcomas of the extremities, trunk, head, and neck. Tissue blocks from 95 of 108 patients without distant metastases or regional lymph node involvement were available. Immunohistochemical staining for MIB-1 and p53 was done on paraffin-embedded sections. All clinicopathologic and immunohistochemical variables and patient survival were assessed using univariate and multivariate analyses. Variables included histological grading based on the modified Fédération Nationale des Centres de Lutte Contre le Cancer (FNCLCC) system using the MIB-1 score for the estimation of the proliferative potential of the tumors. Variables associated with overall survival were tumor site in the trunk, head and neck, mitosis count, necrosis, MIB-1 score, FNCLCC grade, modified FNCLCC grade using the MIB-1 score, and stage (all p values <0.05). In multivariate analysis, the modified grade proved to be the most significant predictor of shortened overall survival, in addition to tumor site in the trunk, head, and neck. Overexpression of p53 did not correlate with increased risk of tumor mortality. Using MIB-1 to replace mitosis counts in the FNCLCC system improves grading of soft-tissue sarcomas, and this in conjunction with other important factors appear to be more accurate prognostic factors for survival, and for patient selection in investigational adjuvant treatment trials.

Adult↗

Hexamethylene diisocyanate causes contraction of canine tracheal smooth muscles through activation of muscarinic receptors.

BACKGROUND: Asthma caused by occupational exposure to hexamethylene diisocyanate (HDI) is well known; however, the exact pathogenic mechanisms remain unclear. METHODS: Experiments were performed using a standard canine tracheal smooth muscle (CTSM) strip preparation in an isolated bath to determine the effect of HDI on tracheal smooth muscle contraction. HDI concentration-response curves were constructed and the effects of different receptor antagonists on HDI-induced smooth muscle contraction were determined. To determine whether HDI and acetylcholine (ACh) bind to a common muscarinic receptor, ACh concentration-response curves in the absence or presence of HDI and concentration-response curves for HDI and ACh in the presence or absence of atropine were plotted. RESULTS: HDI caused contraction of CTSM, with a threshold concentration of 10(-7) M. The EC(50) (HDI concentration that produced 50% of the maximal response) was 6.2+/-0.7 x10(-7) M and the maximal contractile response (174+/-55 g/g of tissue) occurred at a concentration of 5.0+/-0.8 x 10(-6) M. Atropine, a muscarinic blocker, significantly inhibited HDI-induced contractile responses. HDI shifted the ACh concentration-response curve to the right. The mean pA(2) for atropine against ACh (8.93+/-0.27) was not significantly different from that against HDI (8.03+/-0.12). CONCLUSIONS: Our results indicated that HDI causes contraction of CTSM through the activation of muscarinic receptors. Direct stimulation of muscarinic receptors by HDI may play an important role in HDI-induced asthma.

Acetylcholine↗

Bone marrow necrosis in a cat infected with feline leukemia virus.

A one-year old castrated male cat was admitted to the hospital with vomiting and diarrhea. Laboratory examination revealed pancytopenia and positive for FeLV antigen. A bone marrow examination indicated necrosis of the nucleated cells. Based on these findings, the cat was diagnosed as bone marrow necrosis. Pancytopenia was effectively treated with corticosteroids. Re-examination of the bone marrow confirmed a recovery of normal hematopoietic cells with a infiltration of many macrophages. It is strongly suspected that the bone marrow necrosis in this case could be associated with a bone marrow suppression due to FeLV infection.

Animals↗

Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia in a cat.

A 1-year-old spayed domestic short-haired cat was referred with anorexia and weight loss. Hematologic findings indicated nonregenerative anemia, severe neutropenia and monocytosis. The feline leukemia virus (FeLV) antigen test was positive reaction by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. Dysgranulopoiesis with slight increase in blast cells were observed in bone marrow smears. On the basis of blood and bone marrow findings, the cat was diagnosed as chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMMoL), which possibly corresponds to a kind of the subtypes in human myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS).

Animals↗

A hematological study on thirteen cats with myelodysplastic syndrome.

Hematological abnormalities were investigated in 13 cats with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). Examination of the peripheral blood samples from the 13 cats revealed anemia in 11 cats, leukopenia in 9 cats, and thrombocytopenia in 9 cats. Four cats had pancytopenia (30.8%) and 9 cats had bicytopenia (69.2%). Dysplastic changes of erythrocytes, neutrophils, and platelets in the peripheral blood were found in 5, 10 and 8 cats, respectively. Bone marrow examination of the 13 cats revealed that ratios of blast cells to all nucleated cells (ANC) ranged from 0 to 20%. Ratios of erythroid progenitor cells to ANC were more than 50% in 3 cats and less than 50% in 10 cats. Eosinophils accounted for more than 5% of non-erythroid cells in 10 cats. Dysplastic changes in the granurocytic, erythrocytic, and megakaryocytic cells in the bone marrow were found in 11, 7 and 5 cats, respectively. Dysplastic changes in these cats included giant neutrophils, ring-nucleated neutrophils, binuclear myelocytes, hypersegmented and hyposegmented neutrophils, megaloblastoid erythroblasts, multinucleated erythroblasts, micromegakaryocytes, and segmented multinucleated megakaryocytes. Virological examination indicated the presence of feline leukemia virus antigen in the peripheral blood from all of the 13 cats with MDS. The peripheral blood cytopenias and dysplastic changes in each blood cell lineage in the bone marrow were shown to be important for the diagnosis of MDS in cats.

Animals↗

A case of small polypoid esophageal carcinoma with multidirectional differentiation, including neuroendocrine, squamous, ciliated glandular, and sarcomatous components.

A small composite esophageal carcinoma measuring 1.5 x 1.4 x 1.0 cm is described. The tumor had a polypoid elevation with a superficial extension. Histologic examination revealed invasion of the submucosal layer and multidirectional differentiation, including neuroendocrine, squamous, ciliated glandular, and sarcomatous components. The neuroendocrine component was strongly positive for chromogranin and formed the bulk of the polypoid tumor. The squamous cell carcinoma exhibited a superficial extension. The adenocarcinoma was located in a small region of the tumor and contained ciliated glandular cells. The spindle cell sarcomatous component, which was positive for alpha-smooth muscle actin and negative for cytokeratin, exhibited no specific mesenchymal differentiation. Each component was found in 60%, 10%, 5%, and 25% of the tumor, respectively. Cases of small composite esophageal carcinoma containing various carcinomatous and sarcomatous components are extremely rare.

Actins↗

[Two cases of ischemic changes indicated in the amplitude of motor evoked potentials during thoracoabdominal aortic aneurysm repair].

Monitoring of motor-evoked potentials (MEPs) is employed to examine functional integrity of descending motor pathway during thoracic aortic surgery. We experienced two cases of intraoperative changes in MEPs during thoracic aortic replacement. In one case, MEPs recovered after the intercostal artery reattachment, and in another case after the release of aortic clamping. No postoperative paraplegia was found in both cases. We conclude that monitoring of MEPs is useful not only because we can detect symptoms of the spinal cord injury from ischemia immediately but also because they give us a clue to decide operative procedures.

Aged↗

Intracortical osteoblastic osteosarcoma with oncogenic rickets.

Intracortical osteosarcoma is the rarest variant of osteosarcoma, occurring within, and usually confined to, the cortical bone. Oncogenic osteomalacia, or rickets, is an unusual clinicopathologic entity in which vitamin D-resistant osteomalacia, or rickets, occurs in association with some tumors of soft tissue or bone. We present a case of oncogenic rickets associated with intracortical osteosarcoma of the tibia in a 9-year-old boy, whose roentgenographic abnormalities of rickets disappeared and pertinent laboratory data except for serum alkaline phosphatase became normal after surgical resection of the tumor. Histologically, the tumor was an osteosarcoma with a prominent osteoblastic pattern. An unusual microscopic feature was the presence of matrix mineralization showing rounded calcified structures (calcified spherules). Benign osteoblastic tumors, such as osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma, must be considered in the differential diagnosis because of the relatively low cellular atypia and mitotic activity of this tumor. The infiltrating pattern with destruction or engulfment of normal bone is a major clue to the correct diagnosis of intracortical osteosarcoma. The co-existing radiographic changes of rickets were due to the intracortical osteosarcoma.

Bone Neoplasms↗

Clinicopathologic and immunohistochemical study of early colorectal cancer with liver metastases.

Seven (3.3%) of 213 patients who underwent surgery for early colorectal cancer (invasion limited to no deeper than the submucosa) at the National Cancer Center Hospital, Tokyo, between 1986 and 1995 had synchronous (2 patients) or metachronous (5 patients) liver metastases. The average period from surgical resection of the primary colorectal cancer to the diagnosis of liver metastases was 25 months (range, 0-52 months). The clinicopathologic and immunohistochemical features of the primary lesions in these patients were compared with these features in the lesions in consecutive patients with early colorectal cancer who had no evidence of liver metastases within at least 5 years after colorectal resection. Venous invasion was more frequent in the primary lesions with liver metastases than in those without liver metastases (57% vs 0%; P = 0.0035). Expression of p53 and CD44v9 was more frequent in the primary lesions with liver metastases (71% and 100%) than in those without metastases (56% and 72%). In contrast, MUC2 expression was more frequent in the primary lesions without liver metastases (72%) than in those with metastases (43%). Venous invasion is considered to be closely related to liver metastasis, and the immunohistochemical expression of p53 and CD44v9 provides useful information for identifying those patients with early colorectal cancer who have a high risk of developing liver metastases.

Adenocarcinoma↗

Extrathoracic solitary fibrous tumors: their histological variability and potentially aggressive behavior.

The histological variability of solitary fibrous tumors may contribute to the difficulty in diagnosing these neoplasms, especially when they arise in extrathoracic sites. Like intrathoracic lesions, the behavior of extrathoracic solitary fibrous tumors is currently unpredictable because these types of tumor have only recently been recognized. This study therefore was undertaken to examine the clinical behavior and histological, immunohistochemical, and ultrastructural features of 24 extrathoracic solitary fibrous tumors with long-term follow-up. The patients comprised 10 men and 14 women, between 30 and 85 years of age (mean, 51 years). Ten tumors were located in the retroperitoneum or pelvis, 5 in the trunk, 4 in the extremities, 2 in the orbital region, and 1 each in the kidney, uterine cervix, and meninges. All of the tumors showed a classic morphological appearance, diffuse and strong immunoreactivity for both vimentin and CD34, and variable reactivity for bcl-2. All 7 cases examined ultrastructurally contained fibroblasts and myofibroblasts. Six tumors contained multinucleated giant cells, and in 4 cases these lined pseudovascular spaces with mononuclear cells, thus resembling giant cell angiofibroma and giant cell fibroblastoma. Other potentially similar spindle cell neoplasms mixed with adipose tissue, such as dendritic fibromyxolipoma, lipomatous hemangiopericytoma, cellular angiofibroma, and spindle cell lipoma, were considered in the differential diagnosis. One tumor displayed atypical histological features in the form of increased cellularity and nuclear pleomorphism, but this patient has remained free of disease for 14 years. Another 2 patients developed local recurrences at 6 months and 5 years, and a further patient developed pulmonary metastases that were diagnosed after 7 years. These tumors lacked any atypical histological features in the primary lesions. No patient has so far died of the disease. In conclusion, most extrathoracic solitary fibrous tumors appear to pursue a benign course, although, because some have the potential to recur or metastasize, careful long-term follow-up is necessary for all patients.

Abdominal Neoplasms↗

In vitro responses to antigen stimulation: comparison between human lung parenchyma resected from asthmatic patients and non-asthmatic patients.

BACKGROUND: The airway of asthmatic patients is hyperresponsive to various stimuli in vivo. There are, however, only a few reports that compared the in vivo responsiveness of asthmatic patients and non-asthmatic subjects to those of lung parenchyma in vitro. OBJECTIVES: To compare the contractile response, release of various chemical mediators, and responsiveness to drugs in samples of lung parenchyma excised from asthma patients with those of non-asthmatic subjects. METHODS: Human lung parenchymal strips were subjected to passive sensitization with sera of 5+ RAST titer to mites. The strip was suspended in a magnus bath containing a buffer solution. Parenchymal contraction was induced by PGF2 alpha. After washing, the baseline concentrations of thromboxane B2 (TXB2), leukotriene (LT), and histamine were measured in each bath and then contraction was induced by the addition of a mite antigen. The concentrations of TXB2, LT, and histamine were measured after contraction. The inhibitory effects of TXA2 synthetase inhibitor (DP-1904) and TXA2 receptor antagonist (AA-2414) were also evaluated in both tissue samples. RESULTS: There were no significant differences between lung parenchymal tissues of asthmatic and non-asthmatic patients with regard to PGF2 alpha-induced contraction, antigen-induced contraction, release of chemical mediators, and the response to drugs. CONCLUSION: Unlike the response in vivo, there are no differences in the response to stimuli in vitro between lung parenchymal tissues of asthmatic and non-asthmatic patients.

Aged↗

Sensitivity to the house dust mite and airway hyperresponsiveness in a young adult population.

BACKGROUND: The pathogenic mechanisms of airway hyperresponsiveness (AHR) in asthma are unknown and only a few studies have examined the importance of sensitivity to antigens in AHR in young adults. OBJECTIVE: We investigated the correlation between AHR and sensitivity to specific antigens, atopy, history of childhood asthma and spirometry in a young adult population. METHODS: Based on the results of interviews with 447 students at our university, 308 non-smoker students were classified into six groups. Group 1 comprised subjects with intermittent mild bronchial asthma; group 2, subjects with history of childhood asthma; group 3, subjects with atopic disease, and a RAST score for Dermatophagoides farinae (Def) of > or = 2; group 4, normal subjects with a RAST score for Def of > or = 2; group 5, subjects with cedar pollinosis; and group 6, normal subjects. We measured AHR to methacholine (MCh), spirometry, immunoglobulin E-radioimmunosorbent test (IgE-RIST), IgE-radioallergosorbent test to six common antigens, eosinophil cationic protein (ECP), and eosinophil count in peripheral blood in each subject. RESULTS: Airway hyperresponsiveness to MCh did not correlate with IgE-RIST, eosinophil count, or ECP. The highest AHR to MCh was present in groups 1 and 2 and lowest in groups 5 and 6. Multiple regression analysis showed that sensitivity to Def was the only factor that significantly influenced AHR to MCh. Airway hyperresponsiveness to MCh of groups with a RAST score for Def of 0/1 was lower than groups with a RAST score of 2 to 6. Airway hyperresponsiveness to MCh did not correlate with the degree of positivity to Def antigen among positive sensitized groups (RAST score 2 to 6). CONCLUSIONS: Sensitivity to mite antigen may be important in the pathogenesis of AHR and Def is a major contributing antigen in young adults in Japan. Once asthma occurs, AHR remains positive for a long time even after the disappearance of asthma-related symptoms.

Adult↗

Corticosteroid resistance in mild asthma: markers of persistent inflammation.

BACKGROUND: Bronchial hyperresponsiveness (BHR) is an important feature of asthma. Glucocorticosteroids (GCS) reduce BHR, probably by suppressing allergic inflammation. There are, however, two groups of asthmatics with either GCS-responsive or non-responsive BHR to methacholine. We investigated the mechanism of non-GCS-responsive BHR in mild asthma. METHODS: Non-GCS-responsive BHR asthma was defined as failure of reduction of BHR to methacholine after a 2-week course of oral prednisolone (30 mg/day). The expression of interleukin (IL)-4, IL-5, IFN-gamma mRNA in peripheral blood mononuclear cells, eosinophil count, serum cortisol, eosinophilic cationic protein (ECP), and spirometry were measured in five non-GCS-responsive BHR asthmatics and six patients with GCS-responsive BHR asthma before and after prednisolone therapy. RESULTS: With the exception of serum ECP and expression of IL-5 mRNA, no significant differences were observed between GCS-responsive BHR and non-GCS-responsive BHR asthma. The mean ECP level was significantly higher in non-GCS-responsive BHR than in GCS-responsive BHR asthma before and after prednisolone therapy. Interleukin-5 mRNA was detected in all asthmatics before prednisolone therapy; however, after prednisolone therapy, IL-5 mRNA was only detected in non-GCS-responsive BHR asthmatics. CONCLUSIONS: Our findings suggest that activation of eosinophils appears to persist in some asthmatics with non-GCS-responsive BHR due to continuous IL-5 production by lymphocytes.

Administration, Oral↗

Sodium cromoglycate inhibits antigen-induced cytokine production by peripheral blood mononuclear cells from atopic asthmatics in vitro.

BACKGROUND: Several anti-allergic anti-inflammatory drugs are used for the treatment of asthma including glucocorticosteroids (GCS), sodium cromoglycate (SCG), leukotriene (LT) inhibitors, and LT receptor antagonists. The major mechanism of the anti-inflammatory action of GCS is inhibition of cytokine production by T-lymphocytes: however, the mechanisms of anti-inflammatory effects of SCG are still unclear. OBJECTIVE: We elucidated the anti-inflammatory effects of SCG by investigating its effects on cytokine production by peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) obtained from atopic asthmatics. METHODS: Peripheral blood mononuclear cells were obtained from seven atopic asthmatics and sensitized with Dermatophagoides farinae (DJ) or concanavalin A (ConA). We compared the effects of SCG on interleukin (IL)-5 and interferon (IFN)-gamma production by sensitized PBMCs with that of dexamethasone (Dex). Based on their clinical concentrations, we compared the effects of 10(-6) to 10(-4) M of SCG to those of 10(-6) M Dex. RESULTS: Stimulation with ConA increased the production of IL-5 and IFN-gamma. Dex significantly inhibited the production of both cytokines but SCG showed no inhibitory effects. On the other hand, Df stimulation increased IL-5 production only. Dermatophagoides farinae-induced overproduction of IL-5 was inhibited by SCG and Dex. CONCLUSIONS: Our results suggested that SCG has antigen-specific anti-allergic inflammatory effects.

Adult↗