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Biomedical subjects

T Hirose

Publications and source records attributed to T Hirose.

At least 163 records · Page 9Linked to original sources

Evolution and mechanism of translation in chloroplasts.

The entire sequence (120-190 kb) of chloroplast genomes has been determined from a dozen plant species. The genome contains from 87 to 183 known genes, of which half encode components involved in translation. These include a complete set of rRNAs and about 30 tRNAs, which are likely to be sufficient to support translation in chloroplasts. RNA editing (mostly C to U base changes) occurs in some chloroplast transcripts, creating start and stop codons and changing codons to retain conserved amino acids. Many components that constitute the chloroplast translational machinery are similar to those of Escherichia coli, whereas only one third of the chloroplast mRNAs contain Shine-Dalgarno-like sequences at the correct positions. Analyses conducted in vivo and in vitro have revealed the existence of multiple mechanisms for translational initiation in chloroplasts.

Base Sequence↗

Bull's-eye macular dystrophy associated with peripheral involvement.

Although central vision in Stargardt's disease is impaired relatively early, peripheral function is usually little affected and patients do not lose all vision. We report 4 patients with bull's-eye macular dystrophy that is indistinguishable from Stargardt's disease/fundus flavimaculatus, but with very depressed peripheral retinal function. One patient had bull's-eye maculopathy with a dark choroid on the fluorescein angiogram with a normal peripheral fundus and good retinal function initially. Sixteen years later, however, peripheral bone corpuscle pigmentation and optic disc atrophy developed and the electroretinogram became nonrecordable. Three patients from another family also had peripheral pigment degeneration besides macular degeneration. These cases may represent a rare combination of Stargardt's disease and retinitis pigmentosa. However, there was no clinical sign or even suggestion of retinitis pigmentosa at the initial examination in 1 patient. The mode of inheritance in 3 of our patients is probably autosomal recessive.

Child↗

Effect of nitric oxide synthase inhibitor on allergen- and hyperventilation-induced bronchoconstriction in guinea-pigs.

To elucidate the role of endogenous nitric oxide (NO) in allergen- (AIB) and hyperventilation-induced bronchoconstriction (HIB), the effects of an NO synthase inhibitor, NG-nitro-L-arginine methyl ester (L-NAME), on AIB and HIB were studied in guinea-pigs. In the AIB group, 21 anaesthetized guinea-pigs, actively sensitized with 1% ovalbumin, were challenged with aerosolized 0.1% ovalbumin solution under mechanical ventilation. In the HIB group, 14 guinea-pigs were challenged with hyperventilation (tidal volume of 12 mL x kg(-1) at 150 breaths x min(-1) with 21% O2 and 5% CO2 dry gas) for 5 min. In both groups, lung resistance (RL) was measured using a pressure-volume-sensitive body plethysmograph, with or without L-NAME pretreatment (8 mg x kg(-1) i.v. followed by 2 mg x kg(-1) x min(-1) i.v.). The NO precursor, L-arginine was injected at a rate of 15 mg x kg(-1) x min(-1) after L-NAME injection (10 mg x kg(-1)) in the AIB group. The results were as follows. In the AIB group, the maximal RL change was significantly potentiated by pretreatment with L-NAME. This potentiating effect of L-NAME was reversed by L-arginine. In the HIB group, the pretreatment with L-NAME had no effect on increases in RL. These findings suggest that endogenous nitric oxide may play an important role in the modulation of allergen-, but not hyperventilation-induced bronchoconstriction in guinea-pigs.

Airway Resistance↗

Clinical study of the effectiveness of a dual amplified immunoassay (IDEIA PCE Chlamydia) for the diagnosis of male urethritis.

A clinical study of patients with male urethritis (n=316) was undertaken to determine the sensitivity potential for a new dual amplified immunoassay (IDEIA PCE Chlamydia). Increased sensitivity (98.8%, 84/85) was obtained for IDEIA PCE Chlamydia compared to a conventional antigen detection test (IDEIA Chlamydia, 81.2%, 69/85) when testing urine samples. In a smaller patient population (n=104) the positivity rate for the first-void urine tested with IDEIA PCE Chlamydia of 30.8% (32/104) was similar to the 27.9% (29/104) obtained from urethral swabs tested with a DNA probe assay (PACE 2). The increased sensitivity of the test was confirmed with a commercial PCR kit (Amplicor) and nested PCR. The IDEIA PCE Chlamydia kit has the sensitivity potential to be a clinically reliable alternative for detecting Chlamydia trachomatis.

Chlamydia Infections↗

Differentiation between chondroma and squamous cell carcinoma: evaluation of subtraction image of MRI.

The image processing procedure has become widely applied as a visual aid in imaging diagnosis. The subtraction image of MRI obtained by digitally subtracting an unenhanced image from a contrast-enhanced image, depicted a discrete distribution of the contrast agent. Subtraction images in the clinical cases were compared. The subtraction image in a case of chondroma demonstrated a relatively uniform distribution of a contrast agent, with a well delineated neoplastic lesion. The subtraction image in a case of squamous cell carcinoma, the contrast agent was distributed heterogeneously in the carcinoma and well permeated into the muscle. Different patterns of subtraction image were obtained in the clinical cases of chondroma and squamous cell carcinoma in this study. The findings suggest the potential usefulness of the subtraction image for diagnosing the degree of malignancy.

Animals↗

The contrecoup injury in a cat case of traffic accident: MRI findings.

The clinical application of MRI of a cat case of traffic accident was examined. On admission, the animal was unconscious and remained so for 2 days. Radiographs disclosed a fracture in the parietal bone. From the temporary unconscious status and the fracture, cerebral damage was suspected and an MRI examination was performed. The contrecoup injury in the cat case of traffic accident which could not be diagnosed by radiography was diagnosed by MRI examination.

Accidents, Traffic↗

Increased interleukin-6 production in mouse osteoblastic MC3T3-E1 cells expressing activating mutant of the stimulatory G protein.

The McCune-Albright syndrome (MAS) is characterized by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait spots, and multiple endocrine hyperfunction. An activating missense mutation of the alpha subunit of the Gs protein (Gs alpha) was found in several affected tissues, resulting in prolonged stimulation of adenylate cyclase. Our recent study has indicated that the cells derived from the fibrous bone dysplasia tissues in MAS patients produced increased levels of interleukin-6 (IL-6), which may be responsible for the increased bone resorption in this disease. In the present investigation, to analyze the molecular mechanism of the increased IL-6 production by activating mutant Gs alpha in bone cells, we established mouse osteoblastic MC3T3-E1 cells stably transfected with the activating mutant Gs alpha expression vector. These cells showed a significant increase of intracellular cAMP levels and produced a higher amount of IL-6 than the cells transfected with control vector or wild-type Gs alpha expression vector. Analysis of the IL-6 promoter revealed that any of the AP-1, nuclear factor (NF)-IL-6, and NF-kappa B binding elements are important for the activating mutant Gs alpha-induced gene expression. Electrophoretic mobility-shift assays using nuclear extracts of the mutant Gs alpha-expressing cells showed that phospho(Ser133)-cAMP-responsive element binding protein (CREB), AP-1, NF-IL6, and NF-kappa B were increased, compared with the control cells or the wild-type Gs alpha-expressing cells. These results indicate that activating mutant Gs alpha increases the transcriptional factors binding to CRE, AP-1, NF-IL6, and NF-kappa B elements to induce IL-6 gene expression in the osteoblastic cells.

3T3 Cells↗

Monitoring of inhibitors of enzymatic amplification in polymerase chain reaction and evaluation of efficacy of RNA extraction for the detection of hepatitis C virus using the internal control.

Inhibitors of enzymatic amplification in serum may cause false-negative results for direct detection of hepatitis C virus (HCV) by polymerase chain reaction (PCR). This study was undertaken to demonstrate the importance of the internal control in a PCR assay for detection of HCV-RNA to monitor false-negatives due to inhibitors. HCV-RNA was extracted using RNA extraction kit (SepaGene RV-R, Sanko Junyaku) and a prototype instrument for automated specific capture of HCV-RNA with probes and magnetic bead/fluid separation (Roche Molecular Systems). The extracted HCV-RNA and internal control were detected by an automated PCR machine (Cobas Amplicor, Roche Diagnostic Systems). Addition of hemoglobin (up to 4.5 g/l) to the sera followed by RNA extraction with SepaGene RV-R had no inhibitory effect on the detection of either HCV-RNA or the internal control. In contrast, addition of heparin to the sera showed an inhibitory effect with a dose-dependent manner on the detection of both HCV-RNA and the internal control, with a greater effect at lower copy number of HCV. When HCV-RNA was extracted by the automated system, the inhibitory effect of heparin was successfully eliminated. In the assays of 65 serum samples positive for anti-HCV antibodies, positivity for the internal control indicated efficient amplification and validated 14 negative and two equivocal results for detection of HCV-RNA. Detection of the internal control was negatively correlated with viral copy number in sera suggesting competitive inhibition of high viral copy number on amplification of the internal control. Extraction, co-amplification and detection of the internal control appears useful for estimating effects of inhibitors on amplification in each assay for the detection of HCV-RNA, and for evaluating efficacy of RNA extraction methods.

Enzyme Inhibitors↗

[Characteristics of work, life and health analyzed in a survey of a hundred thousand employees of small companies and self-employed persons].

A study of business performance, life and health in small businesses by means of checklist consisting of 22 items and 66 subitems was done by All Commercial Union Mutual Aids Association from September through November, 1995. We analyzed 8 items related to "health." One representative person in each enterprise answered the questionnaire anonymously. The total number of responders was 97,527. Women comprized 18% of those study. 55% of responders were working in companies with only one or two employees. Compared to the government statistics, this study population was comparable to other industrial divisions with the exception of the engineering and construction industry which was three times as large and the wholesale and retail industry which was one-fourth the size. Workers with longer working hours a day reported lesser amounts of sleep. Those workers complained of uneasiness about their health and tended to work on holidays. They also carried their exhaustion over to the next day and did not have regular health examinations. The larger the decrease in sales compared with the previous year, the more the workers showed anxiety about their health and went to the hospital regularly. There was a strong correlation between the percentage of workers who answered "yes" for long working hours and "yes" percentage for a large decrease in sales. An often heard response was, "A doctor tells you to take a rest, but it's impossible to do so because of the job requirements." Among those who responded, there was a large group who were presently hospitalized.

Adult↗

An autopsy case of cytokeratin 7-positive minute adenocarcinoma of the lung with systemic metastases.

We describe a 60-year-old woman with leg pain. Although metastatic bone tumor and atypical cells mimicking signet-ring cells in the bone marrow picture were observed, systemic survey revealed no primary lesion. The patient died two months after admission from systemic progress of the disease. Autopsy revealed a small focus of adenocarcinoma within the right upper lobe of the lung and systemic metastases without any particular changes in the gastrointestinal tract. The tumor cells of the lung were diffusely positive for cytokeratin 7, whereas cytokeratin 20 immunoreactivity was weak and focal, and that supported the lung origin of the present tumor. Moreover, the tumor cells in the bone marrow showed a similar pattern in immunoreactivity. These findings suggest that cytokeratin 7 and cytokeratin 20 immunoreactivity is helpful for the premortem diagnosis of the metastatic tumor of unknown origin.

Biomarkers, Tumor↗

Autopsy findings in a long-term survivor with glioblastoma multiforme--case report.

Autopsy detected no tumor tissues in a patient who died 6.5 years after the diagnosis of glioblastoma multiforme. A 54-year-old male developed left hemiparesis one month prior to admission. Computed tomography demonstrated a cystic lesion in the right frontal region with irregular ring-like enhancement. The tumor was extensively removed together with the surrounding tissue followed by irradiation (whole brain 32.4 Gy, local 28.8 Gy), and intravenous administration of interferon-beta. Histological examination confirmed the diagnosis of glioblastoma multiforme. He died of accidental head trauma 6.5 years after surgery. Autopsy of the brain detected no evidence of glioblastoma multiforme. The only findings were cerebral edema and hematoma caused by head trauma, as well as histological changes due to radiation damage. This case apparently confirms the histological disappearance of tumor tissue in a long-term survivor with glioblastoma multiforme.

Brain Neoplasms↗

[Intralobar pulmonary sequestration with three aberrant arteries: a case report and review of the Japanese literature].

A case of intralobar pulmonary sequestration with three aberrant arteries was reported. The patient was a 26-year-old man. His chest film showed an abnormal shadow suspected of a pulmonary sequestration in the left lower lobe of the lung. Computed tomography of the chest revealed that the aberrant arteries originated from the descending aorta and circulated the emphysematous area of the left lung. Angiography clearly demonstrated three aberrant arteries and three veins draining into the hemiazygos and lower pulmonary veins. Pulmonary sequestration was diagnosed and then resected. Microscopically, the resected lung had emphysematous change, multiple cysts and winded vessels. Aberrant arteries were the elastic type of vessels and accompanied with atherosclerosis. According to the review of 139 Japanese cases of intralobar pulmonary sequestration, 7% of all patients had more than two aberrant arteries. Moreover, only 3% of patients had veins draining into the systemic vessels. In many cases the thin aberrant arteries were clearly demonstrated by angiography and the draining veins were detected. We consider that angiography is necessary to show definitely the aberrant arteries and drainage veins.

Adult↗

Direct measurement of graft and recipient liver fossa size by computed tomography for avoiding problems due [correction of clue] to large graft size in living-related liver transplantation.

We investigated the incidence and manifestation of problems associated with large graft size in living-related liver transplantations and assessed the usefulness of determining volume and dimensions of the graft and recipient's liver fossa by computed tomography to indicate the risk. Five of 150 living related liver transplantations had grafts that were too large, resulting in difficulty in primary abdominal closure or in sudden worsening of hemodynamics during primary closure. No significant difference existed in recipient age, sex, body weight, selection of the graft segment, hepatic vein reconstruction, recipient resected liver weight, graft volumetry value, the ratio of body weight of donor relative to recipient, and the percentage of graft weight relative to recipient body weight, between the groups with and without these problems. Mean +/- SEM of maximal dimensional ratio, defined as the maximum of the ratios of 3 dimensions of the graft relative to recipient liver fossa, were 2.36 +/- 0.64 for patients with grafts that were too large and 1.00 +/- 0.02 for the cases without size problems. The mean +/- SEM of liver fossa index, defined as the product of 3 dimensions of recipient liver fossa, were (25.03 +/- 7.18) x 10(4) mm3 and (127.54 +/- 5.07) x 10(4) mm3, respectively. These two indices clearly indicated the risk of problems due to large graft size, and will help to protect recipients and provide a basis for evaluating graft size in reductions.

Child, Preschool↗

Induction of the nuclear orphan receptor RORgamma during adipocyte differentiation of D1 and 3T3-L1 cells.

Here, we analyzed the expression of the three members of the retinoid-like orphan receptor (ROR) nuclear receptor subfamily during adipocyte differentiation. RORalpha and RORgamma mRNA were upregulated during adipocyte differentiation in preadipocyte D1 and 3T3-L1 cells, whereas RORbeta mRNA could not be detected. The induction of RORalpha and RORgamma mRNA succeeded the induction of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARgamma) and CCAAT/enhancer binding protein alpha and occurred at a similar time interval as did the increase in aP2 and lipoprotein lipase mRNA. Like the expression of PPARgamma and aP2, the induction of RORgamma mRNA was repressed by tumor necrosis factor alpha and transforming growth factor beta. The induction of adipogenesis by prostaglandin D2 and two thiazolidinediones in the multipotent stem cells C3H10T1/2 was also accompanied by an induction in RORgamma mRNA. In contrast to parental cells, clofibrate induces adipogenesis and RORalpha and RORgamma mRNA in BALB/c3T3 cells that ectopically express PPARgamma. RORgamma mediates its effect on transcription through specific response elements. Cotransfection of RORalpha or RORgamma and (RORgamma response element)4-chloramphenicol acetyltransferase into preadipocyte D1 cells induced transactivation of chloramphenicol acetyltransferase about 100-fold, suggesting that ROR plays a role in the regulation of gene expression in adipocytes. The nuclear orphan receptor Rev-ErbAalpha, which did not exhibit transactivation function, was able to inhibit transactivation by RORgamma at two different levels. Our results show that RORgamma is induced during adipocyte differentiation in D1 and 3T3-L1 cells and functions as an active transcription factor, suggesting a role for RORgamma in the regulation of gene expression during this differentiation process.

3T3 Cells↗

[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1996). I. Susceptibility distribution].

The frequencies of isolation and susceptibilities to antimicrobial agents were investigated on 680 bacterial strains isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) in 10 hospitals during the period of June 1996 to May 1997. Of the above bacterial isolates, Gram-positive bacteria accounted for 30.4% and a majority of them were Enterococcus faecalis. Gram-negative bacteria accounted for 69.6% and most of them were Escherichia coli. Susceptabilities of several isolated bacteria to antimicrobial agents were as followed; 1. Enterococcus faecalis Ampicillin (ABPC) showed the highest activity against E. faecalis isolated from patients with UTIs. Its MIC90 was 1 microgram/ml. Imipenem (IPM) and vancomycin (VCM) were also active with the MIC90S of 2 micrograms/ml. The others had low activities with the MIC90S of 16 micrograms/ml or above. 2. Staphylococcus aureus including MRSA Arbekacin (ABK) and VCM showed the highest activities against both S. aureus and MRSA isolated from patients with UTIs. The MIC90S of them were 1 or 2 micrograms/ml. The others except minocycline (MINO) had low activities with the MIC90S of 32 micrograms/ml or above. 3. Staphylococcus epidermidis ABK and VCM showed the strongest activities against S. epidermis isolated from patients with UTIs. The MICs for all strains were equal to or lower than 2 micrograms/ml. Cefazolin (CEZ), cefotiam (CTM) and cefozopran (CZOP) were also active with the MIC90S of 4 micrograms/ml. Compared with antimicrobial activities of cephems is 1995, the MIC90S of them had changed into a better state. They ranged from 4 micrograms/ml 16 micrograms/ml in 1996. 4. Streptococcus agalactiae All drugs except MINO were active against S. agalactiae. ABPC, CZOP, IPM, and clarithromycin (CAM) showed the highest activities. The MICs for all strains were equal to or lower than 0.125 micromilligrams. Tosufloxacin (TFLX) and VCM were also active with the MIC90S of 0.5 micromilligrams. 5. Citrobacter freundii Gentamicin (GM) showed the highest activity against C. freundii isolated from patients with UTIs. Its MIC90 was 0.5 micrograms/ml. IPM and amikacin (AMK) were also active with the MIC90S of 1 microgram/ml and 2 micrograms/ml, respectively. Cefpirome (CPR) and CZOP were also active with the MIC90S of 8 micrograms/ml. The MIC90S of the others were 16 micrograms/ml or above. 6. Enterobacter cloacae IPM showed the highest activity against E. cloacae. The MICs for all strains were equal to or lower than 0.5 microgram/ml. The MIC90S of ciprofloxacin (CPFX) and TFLX were 1 microgram/ml, the MIC90 of AMK was 2 micrograms/ml, the MIC90S of CZOP, GM and ofloxacin (OFLX) were 4 micrograms/ml. The MIC50S of cephems except CEZ, cefmetazole (CMZ) and cefaclor (CCL) had changed into a better state in 1996, compared with those in 1995. 7. Escherichia coli All drugs except penicillins and MINO were active against E. coli. Particularly CPR, CZOP and IPM showed the highest activities against E. coli. The MIC90S of them were 0.125 microgram/ml or below. Among E. coli strains, those with low susceptibilities to cephems except CEZ, cefoperazone (CPZ), latamoxef (LMOX) and CCL have increased in 1996, compared with those in 1995. 8. Klebsiella pneumoniae K. pneumoniae was susceptible to all drugs except penicillins, with the MIC90S of 2 micrograms/ml or below. CPR had the strongest activity, the MICs for all strains were equal to or lower than 0.25 microgram/ml. Flomoxef (FMOX), cefixime (CFIX), CZOP and carumonam (CRMN) were also active with the MIC90S of 0.125 microgram/ml or below. 9. Pseudomonas aeruginosa All drugs except quinolones were not so active against P. aeruginosa with the MIC90S were 32 micrograms/ml or above. Quinolones were more active in 1996 than 1995. The MIC90S of them were between 4 micrograms/ml and 8 micrograms/ml, and the MIC50S of them were between 1 microgram/ml and 2 micrograms/ml. 10. Serratia marcescens GM showed the highest activity against S. marcescens. Its MIC90 was 1 micro

Anti-Bacterial Agents↗

[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1996). II. Background of patients].

Clinical background was investigated on patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) from whom 752 bacterial strains were isolated in 10 hospitals during the period from June, 1996 through May, 1997. 1. Distribution of age and sex of patients and type of infections. Among males, those with ages 40 years or older were more frequent, the higher the ages of them. Among females, those with ages in the 60's were the most frequent (24.6%), and those with ages in the 20's, 40's and 50's were about 13%. With regard to type of infections, more than a half of infections among males with ages 30 years or older were of complicated types, but most of infections among females were of uncomplicated types, especially among females of ages less than 60 years. 2. Ages of patients and types of pathogens. The higher the ages of patients, the lesser became the isolation frequencies of Escherichia coli, but the higher were those of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Klebsiella spp. 3. Effect of antibiotic use on isolation frequencies of pathogens. Use of antibiotics decreased pathogens isolated from patients with uncomplicated UTIs drastically (231 isolates before antibiotics compared to 60 after). Even isolated pathogens from patients with complicated UTIs decreased drastically with the use of antibiotics when indwelling catheters were not in use (193 isolates before antibiotics compared to 75 after), but when indwelling catheters were in use, antibiotics apparently failed to decrease the isolation frequency. 4. Surgical procedures and types of causative organisms for UTIs. From cases of uncomplicated UTIs, E. coli was the most frequently isolated, followed by Enterococcus Faecalis and Klebsiella spp. E. coli was the most frequently isolated organism from complicated UTIs without indwelling catheters. When a surgical procedures were not done, E. coli was isolated most frequently. From cases of complicated UTIs with indwelling catheters, P. aeruginosa, E. coli and E. faecalis were the organisms that were mainly isolated, with isolation frequencies of 23.2%, 15.2, 12.2, respectively. When no surgical procedures were used, isolation frequencies of P. aeruginosa, E. faecalis and Enterobacter spp. were 17.2%, 13.8%, 13.8%, respectively.

Adolescent↗

[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1996), III. Secular changes in susceptibility].

Susceptibilities to various antimicrobial agents were examined for Enterococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp., and Pseudomonas aeruginosa that were isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) in 10 hospitals during June 1996 to May 1997, and the results were compared with those obtained during the same period in earlier years. 1. E. faecalis Among E. faecalis strains, those with high susceptibilities to ampicillin and minocycline appeared to have decreased in the latest study period. 2. S. aureus To almost antimicrobial agents, S. aureus isolated from uncomplicated UTIs showed low susceptibilities. But the MIC50s of those agents for S. aureus from complicated UTIs have changed better state. Particularly, the MIC50s of imipenem and clindamycin were 0.125 microgram/ml or below in the latest period for the first time in our history. 3. E. coli The susceptibilities to piperacillin and quinolones of E. coli isolated from uncomplicated UTIs were better than those isolated from complicated UTIs. 4. Klebsiella spp. The susceptibilities to almost antimicrobial agents of Klebsiella spp. have been better during the latest period, compared to those during period of 1995-1996, but to ofloxacin and ciprofloxacin have appeared to have been lower. 5. P. aeruginosa The susceptibilities to quinolones of P. aeruginosa have been better during the latest period compared those during periods of 1995-1996. But, the susceptibilities to cefozopran, carbapenems and monobactams of P. aeruginosa isolated from complicated UTIs appeared to have been lower. These susceptibility changes should be utilized in determining clinical treatments.

Anti-Bacterial Agents↗

Giant cell fibroblastoma associated with dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans: a case report.

A case of congenital giant cell fibroblastoma (GCF) associated with dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP) in a 1.5-year-old girl is reported. The GCF component was characterized by a mixed proliferation of fibroblastic cells and multinucleated giant cells and sinusoid-like spaces. The DFSP component, which was spatially distinct from the GCF region, was composed of short spindle-shaped cells arranged in a storiform pattern. Mitotic figures were frequently identified in the DFSP area but not in the GCF region. Immunohistochemically, tumor cells in both components were positive for CD34. The Ki-67 labeling index of the DFSP area (4.9%) was markedly higher than that of the GCF (0.5%). Ultrastructurally, spindle-shaped tumor cells in both components, as well as giant cells, were fibroblastic cells that frequently exhibited multilobulated nuclei. This case illustrates the close histogenetic relationship between GCF and DFSP, although the degree of proliferative activity is much higher in the DFSP area.

Dermatofibrosarcoma↗