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Biomedical subjects

T Hirose

Publications and source records attributed to T Hirose.

At least 91 records · Page 5Linked to original sources
PubMed2000

Effect of aerosolized administration of KF19514, a phosphodiesterase 4 inhibitor, on bronchial hyperresponsiveness and airway inflammation induced by antigen inhalation in guinea-pigs.

BACKGROUND: Although phosphodiesterase (PDE) 3 and 4 inhibitors have received much attention for the treatment of bronchial asthma, systemic adverse effects have also been reported. OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study was to investigate the effect of inhaled olprinone, a newly developed PDE3 inhibitor, and KF19514, a PDE1 and 4 inhibitor, on antigen-induced airway reactions in guinea-pigs. METHODS: Fifteen minutes after inhalation of olprinone (0.1 or 1.0 mg/mL) and KF19514 (0.1 or 0.01 mg/mL), animals were given an antigen challenge. Bronchial hyper-responsiveness and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid cell analysis were performed 24 h after the antigen challenge. RESULTS: Inhalation of olprinone and KF19514 caused a dose-related inhibition of antigen-induced bronchoconstriction. Antigen inhalation significantly increased bronchoconstrictor responses to methacholine, and airway accumulation of neutrophils and eosinophils, 24 h after the antigen challenge. These responses were dose-dependently prevented by KF19514, but not by olprinone. CONCLUSION: The results indicate that inhaled PDE inhibitors might be useful for treatment of bronchial asthma.

3',5'-Cyclic-AMP Phosphodiesterases↗
PubMed2000

Identification of tudor repeat associator with PCTAIRE 2 (Trap). A novel protein that interacts with the N-terminal domain of PCTAIRE 2 in rat brain.

PCTAIRE 2 is a Cdc2-related kinase that is predominantly expressed in the terminally differentiated neuron. To elucidate the function of PCTAIRE 2, proteins that associate with PCTAIRE 2 were screened by the yeast two-hybrid system. A positive clone was found to encode a novel protein that could bind to PCTAIRE 2 in vitro as well as in vivo, and was designated as Trap (tudor repeat associator with PCTAIRE 2). The overall structure of Trap shows no significant homology to any proteins, but contains five repeated domains (the tudor-like domain), conserved in Drosophila tudor protein. Trap associates with the N-terminal domain of PCTAIRE 2 through its C-terminal domain, which contains two tudor-like domains. PCTAIRE 1, but not PCTAIRE 3, can also associate with Trap. Trap is predominantly expressed in brain and testis, and gradually increases during brain development throughout life, consistent with the expression pattern of PCTAIRE 2. Immunoreactivities for PCTAIRE 2 and Trap were colocalized to the mitochondria in COS 7 cells. Immunohistochemical analyses showed that PCTAIRE 2 and Trap were distributed in the same cell layer of the cerebral cortex and cerebellum. These findings suggest that Trap is a physiological partner of PCTAIRE 2 in terminally differentiated neurons.

Amino Acid Sequence↗
PubMed2000

Dedifferentiated liposarcoma of retroperitoneum and mesentery: varied growth patterns and histological grades--a clinicopathologic study of 32 cases.

The purpose of this study was to obtain further information regarding cellular differentiation and proliferative characteristics of dedifferentiated liposarcoma (DDL) arising in the retroperitoneum and mesentery for accurate diagnosis and prognostic criteria. The patients included 20 men and 12 women, mean age, 60 years (range, 33 to 80 years). Twenty-seven tumors were located in the retroperitoneum and 5 in the mesentery. Tumor size ranged from 9 to 51 cm (mean, 24 cm). Follow-up was available on all patients and ranged from 4 to 243 months (mean, 64 months). Twenty-four (75%) patients developed local recurrences, 3 (9%) had distant metastasis, and 16 (50%) died of the disease. The predominant histology of dedifferentiation (DD) included fibrosarcoma or malignant fibrous histiocytoma (MFH) in 15 (47%), myxofibrosarcoma (myxoid MFH) in 5 (16%), mixed type in 10 (31%), and a whorling pattern in 2 (6%). Divergent differentiation, such as osseous, osteosarcomatous, chondrosarcomatous, and leiomyosarcomatous, was observed in 9 (28%). Immunoreactivity for vimentin, desmin, CD34, neurofilament, alpha-smooth muscle actin, p53, and MDM2 was observed in 32 (100%), 14 (44%), 8 (25%), 13 (41%), 14 (44%), 19 (59%), and 18 (56%) of DD areas, respectively. On the basis of a histological grading using MIB-1 (MIB-1 index range, 3% to 80%; mean, 27%) to replace mitosis counts (1 to 35/10 high-power fields [HPF]; mean, 13/10 HPF), 16 tumors each were classified as low-grade (grade 2) and high-grade (grade 3). The mixed type with poorly differentiated areas including scattered lipoblasts could be mistaken for myxoid liposarcoma but lacked the C/EBP-homologous protein-translocated in liposarcomat (CHOP-TLS) fusion genes specific for myxoid liposarcoma. Period to the first recurrence and histological grade using the MIB-1 index were associated with overall survival. Identification of DD areas, especially a poorly recognized variant of the mixed type, careful follow-up to detect early recurrence, and histological malignancy grading combined with proliferation indices are important in providing an accurate prognosis for all patients with retroperitoneal and mesenteric liposarcoma.

Adult↗
PubMed2000

False aneurysm of the profunda femoris artery after total hip arthroplasty.

A false aneurysm of the profunda femoris artery occurred after metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty in 70-year-old woman. At 39 days after the operation, the wound suddenly opened, and a large hematoma was discharged. Eleven tornade coils were inserted into the base of the false aneurysm, and the bleeding was arrested. The prevention and management of this complication are discussed.

Aged↗
PubMed2000

Computed tomographic fluoroscopy-guided transthoracic needle biopsy for diagnosis of pulmonary nodules.

BACKGROUND: The purpose of this study was to evaluate the usefulness of computed tomographic (CT) fluoroscopy-guided transthoracic needle biopsy (TTNB) with an 18-gauge automatic biopsy gun for the diagnosis of pulmonary nodules. METHODS: Between March 1996 and January 1998, 50 patients in whom pulmonary lesions could not be diagnosed cytopathologically with fiberoptic bronchoscopy or were not clearly visualized with fluoroscopy underwent CT fluoroscopy-guided TTNB. RESULTS: Final pathological diagnoses were 23 lung carcinomas, five pulmonary metastases and 22 benign lesions. Sufficient tissue for analysis was obtained from 48 of the 50 lesions (96%). The overall diagnostic yield of CT fluoroscopy-guided TTNB was 90%. The sensitivity, specificity and accuracy for malignancy were 89%, 100% and 94%, respectively. In 20 of the 22 cases (91%) of benign lesions, histological analysis yielded correct and specific diagnoses. Complications occurred in 22 of the 50 cases (44%). The most common complication was pneumothorax, which occurred in 21 of the 50 cases (42%). Chest tube insertion was required in 6 (12%). CONCLUSIONS: Although CT fluoroscopy could not decrease the complication rate, CT fluoroscopy-guided TTNB with an automatic biopsy gun appears to be a promising technique for diagnosing pulmonary lesions, particularly benign lesions.

Adenocarcinoma↗
PubMed2000

Primary extracranial meningioma of the foot: a case report.

We present a rare case of primary extracranial meningioma in a 36-year-old man, who had a solitary multinodular mass located in the plantar muscle of the foot. The histology of specimens from simple excision was typical of meningioma, showing bland spindle cell proliferation with a whorl pattern. Immunohistochemical analysis demonstrated that the tumor cells showed diffuse and strong positivity for epithelial membrane antigen as well as moderate reactivity for cytokeratin and vimentin. Ultrastructurally, the tumor cells were characterized by thin bipolar cytoplasmic processes and joined by multiple small desmosomes. There were frequent pinocytotic vesicles and a distinct external lamina on the cell surface. These findings suggest that this primary ectopic meningioma, arising in the soft tissue, may have been derived from perineurial cells of the peripheral nerve, but was morphologically distinguishable from perineurioma. Primary extracranial meningioma should be included in the differential diagnosis of soft-tissue spindle cell tumors, especially those of peripheral nerve origin.

Adult↗
PubMed2000

Sugar uptake and transport in rice embryo. Expression of companion cell-specific sucrose transporter (OsSUT1) induced by sugar and light.

We investigated sugar uptake and transport in rice (Oryza sativa) embryo during grain germination. Endogenous sugar levels, accumulation of starch granules, and gene expression of a rice sucrose transporter (OsSUT1) were examined using rice embryos germinated with or without exogenous sugar supply. Starch granules remarkably accumulated in the cells around vascular bundles as a consequence of the sugar taken up by the embryos, indicating that the taken-up sugars are transiently converted into starch. In situ detection for OsSUT1 mRNA indicated its localization in the phloem companion cells. Furthermore, northern-blot and in situ hybridization analyses showed that OsSUT1 expression is not detectable in embryos subjected to sugar starvation conditions, whereas its expression is enhanced by an increased endogenous sugar level. Overall results indicate that the expression of companion cell-specific sucrose transporter, OsSUT1 is regulated by the endogenous sugar status as well as light exposure.

Biological Transport↗
PubMed2000

Automated specific capture of hepatitis C virus RNA with probes and paramagnetic particle separation.

We developed and evaluated a prototype automated specimen preparation instrument for the specific capture of hepatitis C virus (HCV) RNA with probes and magnetic bead-fluid separation. HCV RNA was isolated from serum by lysis of virus particles with a chaotropic agent, followed by hybridization of the RNA with biotinylated probes and capture of the hybridized RNA with streptavidin-coated paramagnetic particles. After washing of the hybrid-particle complexes to remove nonspecifically bound materials, the particles were resuspended in a specimen diluent and were then ready for amplification and detection with a fully automated PCR system (COBAS AMPLICOR; Roche Diagnostic Systems). The analytical sensitivity in the dilution series was 33 copies per ml or greater. Comparison of the test results with those obtained by a manual method based on organic extraction and precipitation of RNA (SepaGene RV-R; Sanko Junyaku Co., Ltd.) showed 93% (49 of 53 samples) sensitivity and 100% (12 of 12 samples) specificity. There was 94% overall agreement between results. When RNA was extracted by the manual method from serum containing 10(3) or 10(5) copies of HCV per ml in the presence of heparin, there was an inhibitory effect on detection of both HCV RNA and the internal control. In contrast, when RNA was extracted from the serum by the automated method, there was no inhibitory effect. This inhibitory effect of heparin on the manual method was also observed for a series of serum specimens from a hemodialysis patient, but the inhibitory effect was eliminated by the automated specimen preparation method. In summary, a fully automated RNA extraction system for PCR detection of HCV RNA by use of specific capture with probes and magnetic bead-fluid separation was shown to have performance similar to that of the conventional manual method. In addition, it successfully eliminated the inhibitory effect of the heparin in the serum and permitted the detection of HCV RNA in serum samples from a hemodialysis patient. The prototype automated RNA extraction system is suitable as a totally automated system, starting with RNA extraction to detection of HCV, if it was combined with the fully automated COBAS AMPLICOR PCR system.

Automation↗
PubMed2000

Effect of losartan, a type 1 angiotensin II receptor antagonist, on bronchial hyperresponsiveness to methacholine in patients with bronchial asthma.

It is unclear whether angiotensin II receptors are involved in bronchial hyperresponsiveness in asthmatic patients. We examined the effect of losartan, a specific angiotensin II type 1 (AT1) receptor antagonist, on bronchial responsiveness to inhaled methacholine in eight patients with stable asthma. Bronchial responsiveness to methacholine, assessed as the concentration of methacholine producing a 20% fall in FEV(1) (PC(20)-FEV(1)) and a 35% fall in standardized partial expiratory flow at 40% of FVC (PC(35)-PEF(40)), was measured on two occasions 2 wk apart. Losartan (50 mg once a day) or a placebo was orally administered for 1 wk before methacholine provocation test in a double-blind, randomized, crossover fashion. Although the PC(20)-FEV(1) values after placebo (2.037 [geometric standard error of the mean, GSEM = 0.210] mg/ml) and losartan (2.098 [GSEM, 0.239] mg/ml) were identical (p = 0.840), the geometric mean PC(35)-PEF(40) values significantly (p = 0.034) increased from 0.258 (GSEM, 0.156) mg/ml with placebo to 0.456 (GSEM, 0.186) mg/ml with losartan. We conclude that AT1 receptors are involved in bronchial hyperresponsiveness in asthmatic patients. This is the first report demonstrating the involvement of AT1 receptors in bronchial asthma.

Adult↗
PubMed2000

Type 1 angiotensin II receptor antagonism reduces antigen-induced airway reactions.

Although the renin-angiotensin system is activated in patients with asthma during severe acute attacks and angiotensin II has been shown to cause bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma, the role of angiotensin II in patients with asthma is unclear. We investigated the effects of two specific antagonists at type 1 and type 2 angiotensin II receptors, candesartan cilexetil (TCV-116) and PD123319, on antigen-induced airway reactions in guinea pigs. Sixty minutes after intraperitoneal administration of candesartan cilexetil (0.1, 1.0, or 10 mg/kg) or PD123319 (30 mg/kg), animals received an antigen challenge. Airway responsiveness to inhaled methacholine was assessed as the dose of methacholine required to produce a 200% increase in the pressure at the airway opening (PC(200)). Differential cell counts in bronchoalveolar lavage fluids (BALF) were measured 24 h after antigen challenge. Candesartan cilexetil did not inhibit antigen-induced bronchoconstriction in sensitized guinea pigs or alter PC(200) in nonsensitized guinea pigs. Antigen inhalation significantly increased bronchoconstrictor responses to methacholine and increased airway accumulation of eosinophils; both responses showed dose-dependent prevention by candesartan but not by PD123319. These results indicate that endogenous angiotensin II promotes antigen-induced airway hyperresponsiveness and eosinophil accumulation by acting at type 1 receptors.

Angiotensin Receptor Antagonists↗
PubMed2000

Malignant intracerebral nerve sheath tumor with intratumoral calcification. Case report.

The authors present the clinical, radiological, and pathological features of a malignant intracerebral nerve sheath tumor that occurred in the right parietooccipital lobe of a 4-year-old girl. Computerized tomography scanning and magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated a 5x5x4-cm multiloculated mass with considerable enhancement of the irregularly shaped septa and clearly calcified areas within the mass. Among five cases reported in the literature, this patient is the youngest and represents the first case in which there is radiological evidence of intratumoral calcification.

Brain Neoplasms↗
PubMed2000

[Alpha-herpes virus infections--male genital herpes].

In Japan, male genital herpes is the third popular male STD, the most popular one being gonococcal infection and the second chlamydial infection. As specific clinical findings, superficial ulcer lesions with pain are formed in the genital area, especially in the prepuce. After HSV infection in genital mucocutaneous sites, viral particles are transported to the neurons. The state of subsequent HSV infection from external genitalia to the neurons is known as latent infection. 76% of our cases of the first episode of genital herpes infection were caused by HSV-2, and most of the recurrent episodes was caused by HSV-2. Oral acyclovir administration for five to ten days has shortened the treatment period, although about 20 days were required without any treatment. The remaining problems are, asymptomatic HSV shedding, severe infections in immunocompromised patients, transmission of HSV to sex partners and vertical infection to neonates.

Adult↗
PubMed2000

[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1998). I. Susceptibility distribution].

The frequencies of bacterial isolation and susceptibilities to antimicrobial agents were investigated on 538 bacterial strains isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) in 9 hospitals during the period of June 1998 to May 1999. Of the above bacterial isolates, Gram-positive bacteria accounted for 30.3% and Gram-negative bacteria accounted for 69.7%. Susceptibilities of several isolated bacteria to antimicrobial agents were as follows; against Enterococcus faecalis isolated from patients with UTIs, vancomycin (VCM), ampicillin (ABPC) and imipenem (IPM) had strong activities. Among E. faecalis strains, those with low susceptibilities to all drugs have increased in 1998, compared with those in 1997. VCM showed the highest activity against MRSA isolated from patients with UTIs. The MICs of VCM for all 34 strains were equal to or lower than 2 micrograms/ml. Arbekacin (ABK) was also active against MRSA with the MIC90s of 2 micrograms/ml. Against Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae, all drugs except penicillins were active. Particularly, meropenem (MEPM) showed the highest activity with the MICs of 0.125 micrograms/ml or below. Almost all the drugs except minocycline (MINO) showed high activities against Proteus mirabilis. Against Pseudomonas aeruginosa, all drugs were not so active, with the MIC90s of 16 micrograms/ml or above. MEPM, IPM and gentamicin (GM) showed high activities against Serratia marcescens. Generally, it seemed that resistant strains of S. marcescens had decreased since 1996.

Anti-Bacterial Agents↗
PubMed2000

[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1998). II. Background of patients].

Clinical background was investigated on 449 patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) from whom 591 bacterial strains were isolated in 9 hospitals during the period from June, 1998 through May, 1999. About distribution of age and sex of patients and type of infections, among males, patients less than 50 years old were few, and uncomplicated UTIs without indwelling catheters was most frequent. Among females, patients less than 20 years old were few, and uncomplicated was most frequent. Escherichia coli was the most frequently isolated in uncomplicated UTIs, and the higher the ages of patients, the higher were became the isolation frequencies of Enterococcus faecalis, Proteus spp. and Klebsiella spp. In complicated UTIs with indwelling catheters and without indwelling catheters, the types of pathogens had no relation with ages. The complication of infections had decreased E. coli but that had increased Proteus spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staphylococcus aureus. Until last year, use of antibiotics had decreased pathogens isolated from patients with uncomplicated UTIs drastically in our study. But, pathogens isolated after antibiotics had increased in 1998. As for surgical procedures and types of causative organisms in UTIs, E. faecalis were more isolated when surgical procedures were experienced, and E. coli were more isolated when they were not in uncomplicated and complicated UTIs without indwelling catheters. In complicated UTIs with indwelling catheters, types of causative organisms had no relationship with surgical procedures.

Adult↗
PubMed2000

[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1998). III. Secular changes in susceptibility].

Susceptibilities to various antimicrobial agents were examined for Enterococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, Echerichia coli, Klebsiella spp. and Pseudomonas aeruginosa that were isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) in 9 hospitals during June 1998 to May 1999, and the results were compared with those obtained during the same period from 1990 to 1997 in uncomplicated UTIs and complicated UTIs. Among E. faecalis strains, those with low susceptibilities to almost drugs have increased in the latest period. All 5 S. aureus strains isolated from uncomplicated UTIs were the most susceptible to gentamicin (GM). Over 50% of S. aureus strains isolated from complicated UTIs were susceptible to GM, and on the contrary the resistant strains have increased with the MIC90 of 256 micrograms/ml or above. Among S. aureus strains isolated from complicated UTIs, those with low susceptibilities to arbekacin (ABK) have increased in the latest period compared to those during period of 1996-1997, and the MIC90s of them have changed into the lower state from 1 microgram/ml in 1996-1997 to 4 micrograms/ml in 1998. S. aureus strains have continued high susceptibilities to vancomycin (VCM). The susceptibilities to minocycline (MINO) of E. coli showed MIC90: 4 micrograms/ml in 1997, but those have returned in the latest period in uncomplicated UTIs. The MIC90s of ofloxacin (OFLX) to E. coli isolated from uncomplicated and complicated UTIs have been lower 2-3 classes in the latest period than those in 1997. Among Klebsiella spp. strains isolated from uncomplicated UTIs, those with low susceptibilities to almost cephems had increased in 1997, but few of them were detected in the latest study. The sensitive strains of P. aeruginosa to almost drugs have increased during the latest period. The MIC50s of cefozopran (CZOP) and OFLX against P. aeruginosa were the best in our history. The sensitive strains of P. aeruginosa to ceftazidime (CAZ) have increased and its percentage was 30%. Piperacilline (PIPC), cefoperazone (CPZ), GM and OFLX resistant P. aeruginosa strains have increased in the latest period.

Anti-Bacterial Agents↗
PubMed1999

The chloroplast infA gene with a functional UUG initiation codon.

All chloroplast genes reported so far possess ATG start codons and sometimes GTGs as an exception. Sequence alignments suggested that the chloroplast infA gene encoding initiation factor 1 in the green alga Chlorella vulgaris has TTG as a putative initiation codon. This gene was shown to be transcribed by RT-PCR analysis. The infA mRNA was translated accurately from the UUG codon in a tobacco chloroplast in vitro translation system. Mutation of the UUG codon to AUG increased translation efficiency approximately 300-fold. These results indicate that the UUG is functional for accurate translation initiation of Chlorella infA mRNA but it is an inefficient initiation codon.

Algal Proteins↗
PubMed1999

Right hepatic lobectomy for hepatocellular carcinoma which developed in primary biliary cirrhosis: report of a case.

The case of a 74-year-old female patient who underwent a right hepatic lobectomy for hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) which developed in primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is reported herein. During a follow-up examination for Parkinson's disease, an elevation of hepatobiliary tract-related enzymes and alpha-fetoprotein was uncovered. Diagnostic imagings showed a hypervascular, solitary, and encapsulated tumor measuring about 7 cm in diameter located mainly in the posterior segment. Positive antimitochondrial and antinuclear antibodies and a preoperative liver biopsy strongly suggested well differentiated HCC developed in PBC (Scheuer's classification stage II). Since the natural prognosis of PBC estimated by the Mayo risk score was fairly good and the liver function indicated sufficient tolerance for major hepatic resection, and preoperative computed tomography (CT) volumetry showed the atrophy of the right hepatic lobe, a right hepatic lobectomy was performed. A pathological examination revealed well encapsulated, moderately differentiated HCC with, in part, well-differentiated HCC in the tumor and stage II PBC in the noncancerous region. CT volumetry performed at postoperative day 14 showed a 146% enlargement of the remnant liver. An early detection of HCC and PBC by strict screening would prevent a limitation of surgical therapy due to a deteriorated liver function.

Aged↗