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Biomedical subjects

R Morgan

Publications and source records attributed to R Morgan.

At least 73 records · Page 4Linked to original sources

Combination therapy for HIV: the effect on inpatient activity, morbidity and mortality of a cohort of patients.

We set out to quantify the changes in HIV-related morbidity and mortality associated with the clinical use of antiretroviral therapy via prospectively collected patient-related events (admissions, bed days, deaths, WHO stage 3 and 4 events and drug costs) on all HIV patients known to the Regional Infectious Disease Unit (RIDU) from 1 January 1987 to 31 December 1996. The introduction of zidovudine monotherapy in 1987 for those with AIDS was associated with a subsequent decline of inpatient activity for 2 years: in 1989 there was a 23% reduction in bed days but only a 6% reduction in admissions. A further dramatic decline of patient-related events in those with AIDS was noted during 1996 following the introduction of combination therapy, a 39% reduction in admissions, 44% reduction in bed days, 54% reduction in stage 4 events, 33% reduction in WHO stage 3 events and 40% reduction in the death rate. Reductions were also observed for patients without AIDS including a 42% reduction in the rate of patients developing AIDS. Similar reductions were noted when the patients were classified by immunological instead of clinical status although data for 1997 suggest an increase in patient-related activity for those with CD4 counts >200 cells/microl possibly as a result of low levels of anti-HIV therapy. The introduction of combination therapy for HIV has to date led to a minimum saving of one inpatient bed per 100 patient years which helped defray the cost of combination therapy. Although we cannot imply causality from an observational study, dramatic reductions in patient-related activity were associated with the introduction of combination therapy into clinical practice. The ultimate extent and duration of this effect cannot as yet be predicted and caution is required since similar reductions were noted with zidovudine therapy which were unfortunately time limited.

Anti-HIV Agents↗

A new design of the esophageal Wallstent endoprosthesis resistant to distal migration.

OBJECTIVE: Because plastic-covered metallic stents used in the palliation of patients with unresectable esophageal cancer are associated with significant rates of migration, particularly when the lower end of the stent projects into the gastric fundus, the purpose of this study was to establish whether two new prototype designs of the Wallstent esophageal endoprosthesis are prone to migration. SUBJECTS AND METHODS: A cylindrical stent and a conical stent were studied. Both designs included plastic covering inside the metallic mesh. In addition, the conical device incorporated a variation in the braiding angle between the upper and lower parts of the endoprosthesis. Ten conical stents and eight cylindrical stents were inserted in 18 patients with tumors involving the gastroesophageal junction who were followed up with esophagography and endoscopy. RESULTS: All insertions of stents were successful. Two cylindrical stents (25%) migrated distally. Two conical stents (20%) migrated proximally. One perforation occurred that was associated with distal migration of a cylindrical stent. CONCLUSION: The frequency of distal migration of cylindrical stents is unacceptably high. Conical stents are resistant to distal migration, although improvements in design are required to deal with the problem of proximal migration.

Adenocarcinoma↗

Pre-clinical evaluation of probes to detect t(8;21) AML minimal residual disease by fluorescence in situ hybridization.

The 8;21 translocation in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) results in a consistent fusion transcript, AML1/ETO. Long-term clinical remission occurs in some patients despite incomplete eradication of AML1/ETO as demonstrated by RT-PCR, thus limiting the usefulness of this assay. An important future goal will be to determine if there is a level of minimal residual disease (MRD) in patients below which relapse is unlikely. For the detection of MRD, we have developed reagents for fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) that identify both derivative 8 and 21 chromosomes with a high analytical sensitivity. In t(8;21) AML cells, two fused signals were detected in addition to the normal 8 and 21 alleles. The sensitivity and specificity of this probe mixture were analyzed in cell lines and patient bone marrows. One and two randomly juxtaposed signals were observed in 2.4 and 0.04% of normal cells, respectively. However, these were easily differentiated from t(8;21) cells by the absence of signals from the normal alleles. Using as criteria the presence of two fused signals plus the normal alleles, we observed no false positives among 5,000 normal cells. The probe correctly identified 20/20 patients with t(8;21) AML and 10/10 non-t(8;21) patients. In cell dilution experiments, the analytical sensitivity of this reagent was equal to that of the X chromosome and Y chromosome alpha-satellite probes. These optimized probes should facilitate the quantitative assessment and study of MRD in t(8;21) AML.

Bone Marrow Cells↗

Shingles: a review of diagnosis and management.

Herpes zoster or shingles results from reactivation of varicella zoster virus previously dormant in cells of the dorsal root ganglion. The incidence of shingles increases with age and immunosuppression. Guidelines for managing shingles are now available and implementation, with the emphasis on early treatment, may reduce the severity of a shingles attack and reduce the incidence of complications.

AIDS-Related Opportunistic Infections↗

Some observations on fluorescence in situ hybridization evaluation of chronic myelocytic leukemia.

Cosmid probes specific for the major BCR/ABL rearrangement (commercially available probes) were employed by us to evaluate 134 patients with the clinical diagnosis of chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML). The following represent our main observations: 1) No significant statistical difference regarding a false positive fusion signal was seen in the distribution pattern between the Ph negative (-) cases (110) and the normal controls (3.23 +/- 1.97 vs 2.8 +/- 1.92, respectively). 2) The mean percentage of cells with a positive fusion signal in the Ph positive (+) CML cases at presentation was 70 +/- 12.3 in bone marrow samples (12 cases) and 45 +/- 12.4 in blood samples (3 cases). 3) A significant discrepancy was seen between the interphase FISH and cytogenetics data in the monitoring of four out of eight patients post-therapy. The clinical significance of this observation needs to be clarified. 4) Three Ph(-) patients with significant leukocytosis had closely adjacent but not fused signals (20%, 16%, and 20% of cells, respectively, vs. the control: 4%). This may indicate a temporal and spatial association between chromosomes 9 and 22 prior to the BCR/ABL rearrangement (Ph chromosome formation).

Aged↗

Effect of CD34+ selection and various schedules of stem cell reinfusion and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor priming on hematopoietic recovery after high-dose chemotherapy for breast cancer.

We evaluated the effects of various schedules of peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) reinfusion, granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) priming, and CD34+ enrichment on hematopoietic recovery in 88 patients with advanced breast cancer treated with high-dose chemotherapy, consisting of cisplatin 250 mg/m2, etoposide 60 mg/kg, and cyclophosphamide 100 mg/kg. PBSC (> or = 7.5 x 10(8) nucleated cells/kg) were collected following priming with G-CSF and were either immediately cryopreserved (48 patients; cohorts A and B) or were first processed for CD34+ enrichment (40 patients; cohorts C and D). Patients in cohorts A and C received PBSC on day 0; patients in cohorts B and D received 25% of their nucleated cells on day -2 and 75% on day 0 (split reinfusion). Patients in cohorts A, B, and C were primed with G-CSF 10 micrograms/kg, subcutaneously (SC), once a day; patients in cohort D were primed with 5 micrograms/kg G-CSF, SC, twice daily (bid). Bid administration of G-CSF yielded 2.3 to 4.7 x higher numbers of CD34+ cells in the PBSC product than the same total dose given once a day (P = .002). Reinfusion of 25% of unselected PBSC on day -2 (median, 2.26 x 10(8)/kg nucleated cells [range, 1.7 to 3.3 x 10(8)/kg]) with the remaining cells reinfused on day 0 resulted in earlier granulocyte recovery to > or = 500/microL when compared with reinfusion of all stem cells on day 0 (group B, median of 8 days [range, 7 to 11] v group A, 10 days [range, 8 to 11], P = .0003); no schedule-dependent difference was noted in reaching platelet independence (group B, 11.5 days [range, 5 to 21]; group A, 12 days [range, 8 to 24], P = not significant). Split schedule reinfusion of CD34(+)-selected PBSC did not accelerate granulocyte recovery. In groups D and C, the median number of days to granulocyte recovery was 12 (range, 8 to 22) and 11.5 (range, 9 to 13); patients became platelet independent by day 15 (range, 6 to 22) and 14 (range, 12 to 23), respectively. CD34(+)-selected PBSC rescue decreased the incidence of postreinfusion nausea, emesis, and oxygen desaturation in comparison to unselected PBSC reinfusion (P < or = .005 for each). Hematopoietic recovery may be accelerated by earlier reinfusion of approximately 2.26 x 10(8)/kg unselected nucleated cells. Earlier recovery may be triggered by components other than the progenitors included in the CD34+ cell population. Sustained hematopoietic recovery can also be achieved with CD34(+)-selected PBSC alone. Dosing of G-CSF on a bid schedule generates higher CD34+ cell yield in the leukapheresis product. Whether even earlier "sacrificial" reinfusion of approximately 2 x 10(8)/kg unselected nucleated cells concomitant with the administration of high-dose chemotherapy would reduce the duration of absolute granulocytopenia further while initiating sustained long-term hematopoietic recovery will require further investigation.

Adult↗

Counselling implications of chromosomal abnormalities other than trisomy 21 detected through a maternal serum screening programme.

OBJECTIVE: To identify counselling requirements, we reviewed the frequency and type of non-trisomy 21 chromosome abnormalities found at amniocentesis after maternal serum screening for Down's syndrome. DESIGN: The study involved a review of the cytogenetic results of amniocenteses performed because of a raised maternal serum screening risk. SETTING: The maternal serum screening and amniocenteses were performed at hospitals in the Yorkshire region. SAMPLE: 1715 amniocenteses were performed as a result of a raised maternal serum screening risk for the period 1990 to 1993. METHODS: The cytogenetic results were classified into the main categories of numerical and structural chromosomal abnormalities. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: The nature and frequency of abnormal cytogenetic results were identified in which parental samples were required in order to determine if the abnormal finding was de novo or familial and/or for which specialist genetic counselling was required. RESULTS: Sixty-nine pregnancies of 1715 amniocenteses were identified with a chromosomal abnormality (4.0%): 35 (2.0%) with trisomy 21 and 34 (2.0%) with another chromosomal abnormality. For 20 of these 34 abnormalities, parental karyotypes were required and in 29 of the 34 specialist genetic counselling was required. CONCLUSIONS: Women undergoing maternal serum screening and, in particular, those proceeding to amniocentesis, should be informed that there is an equal chance that a chromosomal abnormality other than trisomy 21 will be found at amniocentesis, the nature of which usually requires parental samples and specialist counselling.

Amniocentesis↗

High-dose chemotherapy and stem-cell rescue in the treatment of high-risk breast cancer: prognostic indicators of progression-free and overall survival.

PURPOSE: To examine the predictive value of tumor- and treatment-specific prognostic indicators of relapse-free survival (RFS) and overall survival (OS) in patients with high-risk breast cancer (HRBC) treated with high-dose chemotherapy (HDCT) and stem-cell rescue. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Between June 1989 and September 1994, 114 patients with HRBC (stage II with > or = 10 axillary lymph nodes involved, stage IIIA, and stage IIIB inflammatory carcinoma) received adjuvant chemotherapy followed by HDCT with etoposide, cyclophosphamide, and either doxorubicin (CAVP) or cisplatin (CCVP). Variables analyzed included stage, tumor size, number of axillary nodes involved, grade and receptor status, and types of adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy and HDCT. RESULTS: With a median follow-up time of 46 months (range, 23 to 93), Kaplan-Meier estimates of 3.5-year OS for stage II, IIIA, and IIIB HRBC are 82% (95% confidence interval [CI], 67% to 97%), 79% (95% CI, 67% to 91%), and 72% (95% CI, 53% to 91%); RFS estimates are 71% (95% CI, 56% to 85%), 57% (95% CI, 43% to 72%), and 50% (95% CI, 29% to 71%) irrespective of the HDCT regimen. In univariate analysis, the risk of relapse was lower for patients with progesterone receptor (PR)-positive tumors (risk ratio [RR], 0.43; 95% CI, 0.22 to 0.81; P = .01) and higher for patients with inflammatory carcinoma (RR, 2.20; 95% CI, 1.02 to 4.76; P = .05). OS was better for patients with PR (RR, 0.16; 95% CI, 0.05 to 0.55; P = .003) and estrogen receptor (ER)-positive tumors (RR, 0.42; 95% CI, 0.17 to 1.02; P = .05); OS was worse for patients with high-grade primary tumors (RR, 4.08; 95% CI, 1.21-13.7; P = .02). In multivariate analysis, PR positivity was associated with improved RFS (P = .01) and OS (P = .001). CONCLUSION: HDCT in selected patients with HRBC is safe and warrants further evaluation. Patients with receptor-negative, high-grade, or inflammatory tumors require improvement in their therapeutic options. Better assessment of the role of HDCT awaits completion of ongoing randomized trials.

Adult↗

The role in neural patterning of translation initiation factor eIF4AII; induction of neural fold genes.

Expression of the RNA-helicase translation initiation factor, eIF4AII, in animal cap explants of Xenopus specifically upregulates genes expressed early in the neural plate border such as Xsna, Xslu, Pax-3 and XANF and also the cement gland marker XCG-1. eIF4AII is expressed specifically in the prospective neurectoderm from stage 11.5 and appears to have a significant role in mediating early patterning of the neurectoderm. It is induced by all known neural inducing regimes including secreted factors such as noggin, follistatin and chordin, transcription factors such as XlPou-2 and constructs that overcome repression of neural induction (tBMP-4R, lim-m3 and Xbra delta 304). It is also upregulated when neurulization occurs in embryonic ectoderm that has been disaggregated and reaggregated. While high amounts of injected mRNA of the neural inducers noggin, tBMP-4R and Xlpou-2 downregulate Xslu and upregulate the neural plate NCAM, smaller amounts of these mRNAs activate expression of eIF4AII and Xslu and suppress expression of epidermal keratin in animal cap assays. Ectopic expression of eIF4AII mRNA also upregulates transcription of the PKC alpha and beta genes. The sensitivity of the upregulation of neurectodermal markers to GF109203X indicates that the activity of a calcium activated protein kinase C (PKC) is also required. Furthermore ectopic expression of mouse eIF4AII mRNA upregulates the endogenous eIF4AII gene by a process that requires the activity of PKC. The effects of eIF4AII appear to be direct as conditional expression of eIF4AII in animal cap explants at the equivalent of stage 11.5 induces the endogenous eIF4AII and neural fold genes within 40 minutes. Expression of eIF4AII and activation of PKC sensitizes the embryonic ectoderm to the neuralising effect of noggin. We suggest that in developing embryos the neuralizing signal emanating from the organiser at first induces eIF4AII and the prospective neural crest in an arc low on the dorsal aspect of the embryo. As the neuralizing signal increases in intensity close to the organizer region, the tissue becomes committed to a neural plate phenotype. Expression of Xash-3A may suppress further expression of neural plate border genes within the prospective neural plate thereby subdividing the neurectoderm into two distinct regions.

Animals↗

The role of metallic stents in malignant duodenal obstruction.

Malignant duodenal obstruction is a common complication of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. We report successful palliative treatment of malignant duodenal strictures by the peroral placement of metallic endoprostheses in two patients in whom palliative surgery was not possible.

Aged↗

Using uncovered metallic endoprostheses to treat recurrent benign esophageal strictures.

OBJECTIVE: The management of recurrent benign esophageal strictures is a difficult clinical problem, especially in patients who are not surgical candidates. We evaluated the role of uncovered metallic endoprostheses in four patients who had strictures that were resistant to repeated balloon dilatation. CONCLUSION: Our preliminary experience indicates that uncovered metallic endoprostheses can be effective in treating a select group of patients who have benign esophageal strictures and for whom multiple dilatations have failed. It is also important to note that epithelial hyperplasia can result in stenoses and recurrent dysphagia.

Aged↗

Surgical management of anorectal incontinence due to internal anal sphincter deficiency.

BACKGROUND: The aetiology, surgical management and outcome in 15 patients with anorectal incontinence due to internal and sphincter (IAS) deficiency as a result of previous anal surgery (n = 14) or penetrating trauma (n = 1) was studied. METHODS: The degree of anorectal incontinence was scored by the Cleveland Clinic system; median score was 14 (range 11-16) before surgery. In all patients the anal sphincter mechanism was assessed by endoanal ultrasonography. Thirteen of the 15 patients underwent either rotation (n = 5), island (n = 5) or advancement (n = 3) anoplasty to correct the contour defect in the anal canal. In the remaining two patients direct IAS repair was performed. RESULTS: Four of the 13 patients who underwent anoplasty developed wound breakdown as the result of infection (n = 3) or inadvertent suture removal (n = 1). A defunctioning stoma was required in three of these patients but all of these have been closed. At median follow-up of 34 (range 6-72) months, all patients who underwent anoplasty have normal defaecatory control and a median continence score of 2 (range 0-4). Direct IAS repair produced no symptomatic improvement in either patient. CONCLUSION: These results suggest that anoplasty deserves further evaluation in the treatment of anorectal incontinence due to discrete IAS defects, but that the place of IAS repair remains uncertain.

Adult↗

Anatomy of an earmold: a formal terminology.

The science of earmold (or hearing aid shell) modification has achieved a level that exceeds existing terminology. To date, there is no standardized terminology for various areas of the earmold and hearing aid shell. This article outlines a system of terminology that conforms with anatomic naming principles, retains current terminology where appropriate, and provides nomenclature for previously unnamed areas. A formal nomenclature should aid teaching and communication among professionals.

Ear, External↗

Older people's perceptions about symptoms.

BACKGROUND: Little is known of the nature and origins of the attitudes that older people have towards ageing, disease, and medical treatments. Several studies on older people in the community have suggested under-reporting of symptoms. There may be several reasons for this, including the possibility that some older people regard disease processes as a natural feature of ageing and, consequently, feel that medical intervention may have little to offer. AIM: To investigate the perceptions of older people about the significance of symptoms and what action they would take in response to particular symptoms. METHOD: Thirty-three men and 77 women attending social clubs (median age 78 years) were opportunistically selected and assessed using a supervised questionnaire. RESULTS: Many symptoms classically associated with common diseases were often considered to represent disease as well as to be normal for old people. Most would consult a doctor if they were to experience them. Some important symptoms, such as blackouts or paralysis of a limb, were not considered to be normal. Non-specific symptoms of psychiatric disturbances were also frequently considered normal but were not considered to represent disease. Whether or not a doctor would be consulted was often, but not always, related to whether a symptom was thought to represent a disease. Consulting a pharmacist was seldom considered appropriate. CONCLUSIONS: Doctors working with elderly people need to consider how beliefs about health and disease might affect what is reported to them. Specific enquiry needs to be made about symptoms of psychiatric disturbances. These findings suggest that there is a case for increased health education at retirement age.

Aged↗