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Biomedical subjects

R Hoffmann

Publications and source records attributed to R Hoffmann.

At least 199 records · Page 11Linked to original sources

[Retrograde intramedullary nailing in proximal fracture of the humerus in the elderly patient. Results of a minimally invasive management concept].

Retrograde intramedullary fixation of proximal humerus fractures with flexible wires was evaluated in a prospectively documented study. Seventy-four fractures in 73 patients with unstable proximal humerus shaft or neck fractures were fixed with 3-11 flexible intramedullary wires. The age of the patients averaged 72 years (42 females, 31 males). In nine fractures additional implants (screws, cerclages) were used to fix dislocated fragments through an anterior approach to the shoulder. Complications associated with the procedure especially in osteoporotic bone were secondary loss of reduction (16%) and wire migration (21%) which lead to revision surgery in 14% of patients within 6 weeks. A minimum follow-up of 12 months (average 16.5 months) could be obtained in 61 patients (84%). According to the Neer- and Constant-scores 60% showed good or excellent results, 30% had a satisfactory and 10% had an unsatisfactory or poor result.--Retrograde intramedullary, flexible wire fixation can provide an overall satisfactory outcome in unstable proximal humerus fractures of the elderly. However, the high incidence of secondary wire dislocations especially in marked osteoporosis appears to be an unsolved problem of this treatment modality.

Aged↗

Characterization of five different proteins produced by alternatively spliced mRNAs from the human cAMP-specific phosphodiesterase PDE4D gene.

We have isolated and characterized complete cDNAs for two isoforms (HSPDE4D4 and HSPDE4A5) encoded by the human PDE4D gene, one of four genes that encode cAMP-specific rolipram-inhibited 3',5'-cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterases (type IVPDEs; PDE4 family). The HSPDE4D4 and HSPDE4D5 cDNAs encode proteins of 810 and 746 amino acids respectively. A comparison of the nucleotide sequences of these two cDNAs with those encoding the three other human PDE4D proteins (HSPDE4D1, HSPDE4D2 and HSPDE4D3) demonstrates that each corresponding mRNA transcript has a unique region of sequence at or near its 5'-end, consistent with alternative mRNA splicing. Transient expression of the five cDNAs in monkey COS-7 cells produced proteins of apparent molecular mass under denaturing conditions of 68, 68, 95, 119 and 105 kDa for isoforms HSPDE4D1-5 respectively. Immunoblotting of human cell lines and rat brain demonstrated the presence of species that co-migrated with the proteins produced in COS-7 cells. COS-cell-expressed and native HSPDE4D1 and HSPDE4D2 were found to exist only in the cytosol, whereas HSPDE4D3, HSPDE4D4 and HSPDE4D5 were found in both cytosolic and particulate fractions. The IC50 values for the selective PDE4 inhibitor rolipram for the cytosolic forms of the five enzymes were similar (0.05-0.14 microM), whereas they were 2-7-fold higher for the particulate forms of HSPDE4D3 and HSPDE4D5 (0.32 and 0.59 microM respectively), than for the corresponding cytosolic forms. Our data indicate that the N-terminal regions of the HSPDE4D3, HSPDE4D4 and HSPDE4D5 proteins, which are derived from alternatively spliced regions of their mRNAs, are important in determining their subcellular localization, activity and differential sensitivity to inhibitors.

3',5'-Cyclic-AMP Phosphodiesterases↗

Overestimation of acute lumen gain and late lumen loss by quantitative coronary angiography (compared with intravascular ultrasound) in stented lesions.

The accurate measurement of lumen dimensions is essential for guidance of interventional procedures and the assessment of acute and late results. This study compared intravascular ultrasound (IVUS) with quantitative coronary angiography (QCA) in the assessment of lumen dimensions before and after intervention, and at follow-up. Two hundred thirty-one consecutive patients treated with Palmaz-Schatz stents and evaluated using serial (before and after intervention, and follow-up) IVUS and QCA were screened. Because IVUS cannot measure dimensions smaller than the imaging catheter, patients having an angiographic minimal lumen diameter (MLD) less than the IVUS catheter (1.0 mm) during any study were excluded, leaving 71 patients in the final study group. IVUS and QCA measurements (reference dimensions and MLD) and calculations (percent diameter stenosis, acute lumen gain, late lumen loss, loss index, and restenosis rates) were compared. Correlation coefficients ranged from 0.641 to 0.816 for measured variables and from 0.280 to 0.680 for calculated variables. Reference lumen dimensions were consistently larger by IVUS than by QCA: 0.50 +/- 0.52 mm before intervention (p <0.0001), 0.46 +/- 0.45 mm after intervention (p <0.0001), and 0.38 +/- 0.53 mm at follow-up (p <0.0001). MLDs measured by IVUS were larger before intervention (0.17 +/- 0.28 mm, p <0.0001), smaller after intervention (0.17 +/- 0.34 mm, p <0.0001), and larger at follow-up (0.14 +/- 0.41 mm, p <0.0001). This resulted in a smaller acute gain and late loss measured by IVUS (0.33 +/- 0.39 and 0.30 +/- 0.47 mm, respectively, both p <0.0001). Although measures of restenosis (i.e., loss index and restenosis rates) were similar, the classification of lesions in individual patients (as restenotic vs nonrestenotic) was significantly different (p = 0.002, concordance rate = 73%). There are systematic differences between IVUS and QCA in the measurement of reference and lesion lumen dimensions. Although indexes of restenosis were similar, classification of lesions in individual patients was different.

Aged↗

Unique Alzheimer's disease paired helical filament specific epitopes involve double phosphorylation at specific sites.

Alzheimer's disease (AD) paired helical filaments (PHFs), building blocks of neurofibrillary tangles (NFTs) are composed of hyperphosphorylated forms of the microtubule-associated protein tau (i.e., PHF-tau). Currently, much effort is devoted to the development of diagnostic antibodies specific for PHF-tau since elevated tau levels are found in the cerebral spinal fluid of AD patients. To this end, we have mapped the epitopes of a large panel of monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) that recognized only phosphorylation dependent epitopes on PHF-tau. These mAbs include the PHF-tau specific mAb AT10 and 12 newly developed anti-PHF mAbs that recognize PHF-tau but not autopsy-derived normal adult tau on Western-blot and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). Epitope analysis, together with data on known binding sites of previously published mAbs, revealed that Ser214, Thr231, and Ser396 are immunodominant phosphorylated amino acids in PHF-tau. Six of the 12 new mAbs recognized one of these three phosphorylated sites. With the exception of AT10 and PHF-27, all the mAbs also labeled fetal tau and biopsy-derived tau. Since mAbs AT10 and PHF-27 had little or no affinity for fetal tau and biopsy tau, they can be considered as the first "true" PHF-specific antibodies capable of distinguishing tau isoforms from normal versus AD subjects, suggesting a possible utility of these mAbs as diagnostic markers. Remarkably, the true PHF-specific antibodies recognized peptide sequences phosphorylated on more than one amino acid residue. The peptide recognition of mAb AT10 required the simultaneous phosphorylation of Thr212 and Ser214, and the peptide recognition of mAb PHF-27 was markedly increased when both the primary site Thr231 and the subsite Ser235 were phosphorylated. Since AT10 and PHF-27 are the only mAbs currently available that bind specifically to PHF-tau, these data suggest that double phosphorylation at Thr212/Ser214 and Thr231/Ser235 may be unique to PHF-tau. These data may facilitate the development of mAbs that can be used as specific diagnostic reagents for the detection of altered tau in cerebrospinal fluid of AD patients.

Adult↗

[Stepwise diagnosis of intestinal hemorrhage].

Endoscopy is the method of choice in diagnosing gastrointestinal bleeding. In case of acute and severe bleeding a bleeding-source in the upper gastrointestinal tract has to be excluded with priority. The efficiency of endoscopy would be enhanced by endoscopic Doppler ultrasound. A diagnostic gap in the region of small bowel possibly will be closed by recently developed push-enteroscopy. Angiography and scintigraphy with labeled autologous erythrocytes are reserved to bleeding of still unknown source. Enteroclysis and double contrast barium enema are necessary only in very rare cases.

Algorithms↗

Serial intravascular ultrasound predictors of restenosis at the margins of Palmaz-Schatz stents.

To evaluate predictors of restenosis at margins of Palmaz-Schatz stents, intravascular ultrasound studies were performed after intervention and at follow-up (5.4 months) in 161 stented lesions. Of 301 stent margins, 77 (26%) were restenotic at follow-up (>50% late lumen loss). Intimal hyperplasia was greater for restenotic than for nonrestenotic stents margins. The dominant periprocedural predictor of stent margin restenosis was the plaque burden of the continuous reference segment.

Coronary Disease↗

Mitogenic and anti-proliferative signals for neural crest cells and the neurogenic action of TGF-beta1.

The influence of pertinent growth factors on proliferation and differentiation of quail neural crest cell was assessed by in vitro colony assay in a serum-free (0.5% chick embryo-extract supplemented) culture medium. The factors tested included basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF; FGF-2), neurotrophins, and transforming growth factor-beta-1 (TGF-beta). Both bFGF and neurotrophins are implicated in the development of the peripheral nervous system, whereas TGF-beta can affect cell differentiation and modulate the action of other growth factors. Bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU) incorporation indicated that bFGF is mitogenic to pluripotent neural crest cells (and/or their immediate progeny) and to committed melanogenic cells. However, this was not reflected in an increase in colony size. In contrast, colony size did increase when nerve growth factor (NGF) was present in addition to bFGF. This indicated either that both factors are required to initiate cell proliferation or that at least some bFGF-exposed cells become dependent on neurotrophins for survival. Sequential addition of the factors showed that exposure to bFGF was required prior to the presence of a neurotrophin, thus favoring the latter possibility. All three neurotrophins tested, NGF, brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF), and neurotrophin-3 (NT-3), were capable of supporting survival of pluripotent neural crest cells (or their closely related progeny) in the presence of bFGF. In the absence of bFGF, neurotrophins did not affect colony size. Although the BrdU data indicated that bFGF is also a mitogen for committed melanogenic cells, the size of pigmented colonies did not change in the presence of bFGF alone or of bFGF plus a neurotrophin. This suggested that another, yet to be determined, factor is required for the survival of proliferating melanogenic cells. Colony assays were also performed in the presence and absence of TGF-beta, both alone and in combination with bFGF plus NGF. TGF-beta inhibited proliferation of both pluripotent neural crest cells (and/or their immediate derivatives) and of committed melanogenic cells, causing a decrease in colony size. When TGF-beta was added to the culture medium together with the bFGF/NGF combination, this also caused a significant decrease in colony size, similar to the one observed with TGF-beta alone. TGF-beta blocked proliferation even when the cells were exposed 24 to 48 hr to the bFGF/NGF combination prior to addition of TGF-beta. Neurogenesis increased significantly in the presence of TGF-beta. The number per colony of both adrenergic cells and sensory neuron precursors increased in TGF-beta-treated neuroblast-positive colonies. The following new insights were derived from this study: 1) basic FGF is a mitogen for pluripotent neural crest cells (and/or their immediate derivatives); 2) pluripotent and committed melanogenic neural crest cells that have been exposed to bFGF become dependent on trophic support; 3) all neurotrophins tested (NGF, BDNF or NT-3) can fulfill the trophic requirement of bFGF-exposed pluripotent cells, but not for melanogenic cells; 4) TGF-beta is an anti-proliferative signal for pluripotent neural crest cells and for committed melanogenic cells; 5) the TGF-beta-mediated anti-proliferative signal dominates over the bFGF/neurotrophin-mediated mitogenic signal; and 6) TGF-beta enhances sensory and adrenergic neurogenesis, possibly by acting upon a common neurogenic precursor cell. Furthermore, our work confirms previous reports by other investigators, who showed that bFGF promotes and TGF-beta inhibits proliferation of pigment cells.

Animals↗

Relationship between objective and subjective sleep measures in depressed patients and healthy controls.

The purpose of this study was to correlate subjective sleep characteristics based on questionnaire response, and objective sleep EEG features based on polysomnography, in 52 patients with major depressive disorders (MDD) and 49 healthy controls. With the exception of the number of awakenings, subjective and objective sleep measures were strongly correlated in both groups. Patients and controls were able to accurately judge time in bed, total sleep time and sleep latency. However, sleep quality, depth, and how rested participants felt upon awakening were not strongly correlated with objective sleep characteristics, particularly in those with MDD. The findings suggest that estimates such as total sleep time and sleep latency, obtained from questionnaire data, bear a strong resemblance to objective polysomnographic characteristics in both those with MDD and healthy controls. Patients with MDD do not show sleep-state misperceptions although depressed women are more accurate in estimating sleep characteristics than depressed men.

Adult↗

[Pathophysiology and therapeutic concepts in coronary restenosis].

Demonstration of a reduced restenosis rate after stent implantation (Benestent, STRESS) has initiated rapid increase in stent implantation rates with widening indications. At present, the majority of stents are implanted in "none-Benestent/STRESS-lesions" with the consequence of a higher restenosis rate as previously expected. Stent restenosis has therefore become a relevant problem in interventional cardiology. In contrast to balloon angioplasty, where acute and subacute recoil represents the major mechanism of restenosis, stent restenosis is exclusively attributed to neointima proliferation. Morphological studies have demonstrated that neointima is caused by early smooth muscle cell ingrowth with a maximum after 7 days which is then gradually replaced by extracellular matrix. Systematic clinical, angiographic and intravascular ultrasound studies have identified several risk factors for increased stent restenosis such as: diabetes mellitus, treatment of restenosis, serial stent implantation, small and calcified vessels, ostial lesions, venous bypass grafts and complex stenosis morphology. In addition, there is increasing evidence that aggressive implantation techniques with high pressures and oversized balloons may also induce higher restenosis rates. Optimal treatment of instent restenosis has not been determined so far. Balloon angioplasty is at present considered the therapeutic option of choice. Several small studies have shown, that in short, discrete lesions (< 10 mm) results of simple PTCA are acceptable with re-restenosis rates between 15 and 35%. The intervention is considered safe with low complication rates. In 10 to 15% additional stent implantation is necessary, usually due to dissections proximal or distal to the treated stent. In long, diffuse stent restenosis (> or = 10 mm), however, PTCA results in high re-restenosis rates up to > 80%. This is most likely due to insufficient early balloon angioplasty results with minimal luminal diameters (MLD) significantly below the previous stent diameter. Therefore, debulking techniques have been used to reduce neointima burden within the stent. At present 3 techniques are available: directional coronary atherectomy (DCA), Excimerlaser angioplasty (ELCA) or high frequency rotablation. All of these techniques achieve a significant reduction in plaque volume within the stent and in combination with balloon angioplasty allow larger MLDs than PTCA alone. Limited experiences with ELCA and rotablation have shown that the techniques are safe without major periinterventional complications. DCA, however, has been accompanied with stent destruction and therefore should be considered with large care, especially in stents with coil design. At present, no randomized controlled trials for the comparison of debulking techniques with or without balloon angioplasty versus balloon angioplasty alone are available. Three multicenter trials have been initiated (LARS, ARTIST and TWISTER) to compare debulking techniques versus balloon angioplasty in diffuse stent restenosis. Adjunct medical treatment after interventions for stent restenosis is usually limited to ASS alone, indications for additional application of Ticlopidine have not been verified so far. Positive results are expected for the use of local radiation therapy either by radioactive stent implantation or afterloading techniques. With increasing stent implantation rates and indications, about 400,000 stents will be implanted in 1997 worldwide. Considering a low restenosis rate of 20%, 80,000 stent restenosis will occur within one year. Final recommendations for optimal treatment of these patients are not yet available.

Angioplasty, Laser↗

[Value of MRI in assessment of cruciate ligament replacement].

To evaluate the predictive value of MRI in the early postoperative course after cruciate ligament replacement, a prospective study was performed. Twenty patients with reconstructed anterior and/or posterior cruciate ligament were examined clinically and with contrast-enhanced MRI 2, 12, 24 weeks, 1 and 2 years postoperatively. The clinical examinations were evaluated according to the scores by Lysholm, OAK and IKDC. The MRI scans (SP 63, 1.5 Tesla) were evaluated regarding the quality and signal intensity of the reconstructed ligament. During the first postoperative year a significant increase in signal intensity and inhomogeneity of the neoligament in MRI was observed in 16 patients with an average value for signal/noise of 1.1 2 weeks postoperatively up to 6.9 1 year postoperatively. In 12 patients the reconstructed ligament could not be evaluated in the 1-year postoperative MRI, whereas none of these patients was suspected clinically of having instability. In the 2-year postoperative MRI, the signal intensity of the neoligament was found to be decreasing again with improvement in judgement.

Adolescent↗

[Local foreign body reactions to biodegradable implants. A classification].

Biodegradable implants are increasingly used in orthopedic and trauma surgery. Many different implants consisting of different biodegradable polymers are currently available. Different factors contribute to the biocompatibility of these implants, and local foreign-body reactions remain a matter of concern. Therefore, it is mandatory to document and compare the tissue reactions caused by various biodegradable implants in experimental or clinical studies. We have developed a standardized system of classification based on our previous experimental and clinical observations. Foreign-body reactions are differentiated into osteolysis (0-0 to 0-4), extra-articular (EA-0 to EA-4) and intraarticular (IA-0 to A-4) soft-tissue reactions.

Animals↗

IFN-gamma-induced HLA-DR but not ICAM-1 expression on cultured dermal papilla cells is downregulated by TNF-alpha.

The immune response present in untreated alopecia areata (AA) is characterized by overexpression of ICAM-1 and MHC molecules on dermal papilla cells of affected hair follicles and by a distinct cytokine pattern. After successful treatment with the potent contact allergen diphenylcyclopropenone (DCP), adhesion molecules are downregulated and a reversed pattern of cytokines is expressed. To determine which cytokines may be involved in this process we studied the expression and modulation of ICAM-1 and MHC class I and II molecules on cultured dermal papilla cells. Scalp biopsies were obtained from healthy donors and dermal papillae were isolated. The cells were treated with various cytokines and prostanoids. The surface molecules were labeled with FITC-conjugated antibodies, and the expression levels were quantified by FACScan analysis. Incubation with IFN-gamma led to a time-dependent upregulation of the surface molecules studied. IL-1 beta and TNF-alpha synergistically increased the expression of ICAM-1, but they failed to induce MHC molecules. However, both cytokines significantly reduced the IFN-gamma-induced HLA-DR expression. Pretreatment of cells with the cyclooxygenase inhibitor diclofenac, prostanoids, IL-10 or TGF-beta 1 did not alter the constitutive or IFN-gamma-elicited expression of surface molecules. A neutralizing anti-IL-1 beta-antibody did not affect any cytokine-induced changes. We conclude that with regard to surface molecules we can partly initiate in vitro the situation of AA in vivo. Moreover, our results suggest that TNF-alpha, which is markedly increased under DCP treatment, might be an effector of the therapeutic response in AA.

Adult↗

Clinical degradation and biocompatibility of different bioabsorbable interference screws: a report of six cases.

The clinical biocompatibility and degradation of bioabsorbable interference screws of different polymer composition is described in this report for six patients who underwent repeat arthroscopy after anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Bioabsorbable interference screws were used for bone plug fixation of bone--patellar tendon--bone (BPTB) autografts. Poly (L-lactide) (PLLA) interference screws were used in one case, poly (D,L-lactide-co-glycolide) (PDLLA-co-PGA) in two cases and poly (D,L-lactide) (PDLLA) in three cases. The patients either underwent removal of the femoral screw or had a biopsy taken from the screw site during re-arthroscopy. Large fragments of the PLLA screw were still present 20 months postoperatively. In one case, the PDLLA-co-PGA screw was extruded spontaneously from the tibial bone tunnel 3 weeks after the operation. In the second PDLLA-co-PGA screw case, there was no evidence left of the screw material on biopsy 12 months after implantation. The PDLLA screw in one patient was removed 6 weeks after implantation without any signs of degradation. No traces of the PDLLA screws were found in the two other patients, 10 or 14 months postoperatively. There were no clinical signs of foreign-body reactions in all cases.

Adult↗

Elevated serum levels of S100 and survival in metastatic malignant melanoma.

Current reports suggest serum S100 as a prognostic marker for disease progression in advanced malignant melanoma. In this study, we assessed serum levels of S100 and multiple clinical factors in relation to overall survival in 99 patients with metastatic malignant melanoma seen at our institution between May 1990 and April 1996. For statistical analysis, we used both univariate and multivariate Cox proportional-hazards models. Elevated serum levels of S100 correlated with poor outcome in metastatic malignant melanoma (P < 0.0001), univariate analysis). Upon multivariate analysis, however, S100 added no information to known clinical prognostic parameters.

Aged↗

Analysis of T cell activation pathways in patients with liver cirrhosis, impaired delayed hypersensitivity and other T cell-dependent functions.

Patients with cirrhosis of the liver frequently demonstrate anergy in intracutaneous tests and fail to respond to vaccination, suggesting impaired delayed hypersensitivity and other T cell-dependent functions in vivo. T cell activation through the coordinated interaction of different cells of the immune system (B cell, antigen-presenting cells (APC)) is an important step in the induction of cellular and humoral immune responses. Impaired T cell-dependent functions in patients with liver cirrhosis may thus be explained by defective T cell activation. We prospectively investigated T cell activation pathways in 12 patients (nine males, three females) with alcoholic liver cirrhosis (seven Child Pugh stage A and B (CP A + B), five Child Pugh stage C (CP C)) and five healthy controls and compared the in vitro results of T cell activation with data obtained in vivo, e.g. intracutaneous tests and vaccination against hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs-Ag). Five out of eight patients who completed vaccination against hepatitis B virus infection were non-responders; one of the three responders had a non-protective anti-HBs titre. Moreover, three of five patients with alcoholic liver cirrhosis CP A + B, and two out of three with CP C were anergic in intracutaneous tests to a set of diverse antigens. All parameters of T cell activation were normal, including proliferation mediated by CD2, CD3-T cell receptor (TCR) complex, and CD28; acquisition of responsiveness to exogenous IL-2 and IL-4; activation of proteinkinase C (PKC) by phorbol ester and calcium influx by addition of ionomycin. The ability of monocytes to deliver costimulatory signals was preserved in patients with alcoholic cirrhosis. In addition, serum of patients with alcoholic liver disease did not inhibit T cell proliferation. We conclude that, although in patients with alcoholic liver cirrhosis T cell-dependent functions are impaired in vivo, T cell activation pathways are not responsible for the observed immune defect.

Adolescent↗

A conformation- and phosphorylation-dependent antibody recognizing the paired helical filaments of Alzheimer's disease.

Hyperphosphorylated tau (PHF-tau) is the major constituent of paired helical filaments (PHFs) from Alzheimer's disease (AD) brains. This conclusion has been based largely on the creation and characterization of monoclonal antibodies raised against PHFs, which can be classified in three categories: (a) those recognizing unmodified primary sequences of tau, (b) those recognizing phosphorylation-dependent epitopes on tau, and (c) those recognizing conformation-dependent epitopes on tau. Recent studies have suggested that the antibodies recognizing primary sequence and phosphorylation-dependent epitopes on tau are unable to distinguish between normal adult biopsy tau and PHF-tau. We now present evidence for a new fourth class of monoclonal antibodies recognizing conformation-dependent phosphoepitopes on tau, typified by TG-3, a monoclonal antibody raised to PHFs from AD brain homogenates. Studies using a series of deletional tau mutants, site-directed tau mutants, and synthetic peptides enable the precise epitope mapping of TG-3. Additional studies demonstrate that TG-3 reacts with neonatal mouse tau and PHF-tau but does not recognize adult mouse tau or tau derived from normal human autopsy or biopsy tissue. Further investigation reveals that TG-3 recognizes a unique conformation of tau found almost exclusively in PHFs from AD brains.

Adult↗

Transoesophageal stress echocardiography.

Transoesophageal echocardiography has been performed in conjunction with pacing, dobutamine, or dipyridamole stress to detect stress-inducible ischaemia, and has proved to be a highly accurate diagnostic tool. Its advantages of improved image quality and high diagnostic accuracy have to be weighed against the disadvantages of semi-invasiveness and patient discomfort. The existing data on this stress echo modality and on special applications (diastolic dysfunction, ischaemic mitral regurgitation, hibernating myocardium, peri-operative risk assessment) are reviewed.

Angioplasty, Balloon, Coronary↗