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R B Jones

Publications and source records attributed to R B Jones.

At least 73 records · Page 4Linked to original sources

Chlamydia pneumoniae serology: interlaboratory variation in microimmunofluorescence assay results.

The lack of standardization in chlamydia serology has made interpretation of published data difficult. This study was initiated to determine the extent of interlaboratory variation of microimmunofluorescence (MIF) test results for the serodiagnosis of Chlamydia pneumoniae infections. Identical panels of 22 sera were sent to 14 laboratories in eight countries for the determination of IgG and IgM antibodies by MIF. Although there was extensive variation in the numeric titer values, the overall percentage agreement with the reference standard titers from the University of Washington was 80%. For results by serodiagnostic category, the best agreement was for four-fold rise in IgG titers, while the lowest agreement was for negative or low IgG titers. Agreement for IgM titers was 50%-95%. Four laboratories failed to discern false-positive IgM titers possibly because of the presence of rheumatoid factor. Further studies are underway to determine the source of interlaboratory variation for the MIF test.

Antibodies, Bacterial↗

Developmental instability in japanese quail genetically selected for contrasting adrenocortical responsiveness.

Differences in developmental instability were assessed with Japanese quail of two lines that had been genetically selected over several generations for reduced (low stress, LS) or exaggerated (high stress, HS) plasma corticosterone response to brief mechanical restraint. At 32 wk of age, three bilateral traits were selected for study in each quail line. The characteristics chosen were length of the metatarsus (shank length, SHL), diameter of the shank (SHD) perpendicular to the spur, and distance between the auditory canal and the nares (face length, FL). Significantly greater bilateral trait size variances were associated with the measurement of SHL (P < 0.0088) and FL (P < 0.0016) in the HS line than in the LS line. SHD variances did not differ (P = 0.22) in quail of the HS and LS lines. These findings suggest that developmental instability (i.e., fluctuating asymmetry, FA) is more pronounced in HS quail than in LS quail. Previous studies have shown that not only do quail of the HS line show greater adrenocortical responsiveness to a wide range of stressors but that they are also more easily frightened than LS birds. Therefore, the line differences in FA found here may reflect the birds' differential responsiveness to chronic social and physical environmental stressors. The present findings also support previous suggestions that measuring asymmetries in bilateral traits could be an additional and valid method of assessing stress and of comparing phenotypic stability in selected populations.

Adrenal Cortex↗

Struggling behavior in shackled male and female broiler chickens.

Anecdotal evidence suggests that the struggling behavior of shackled broiler chickens may be positively related to compression of the shank and the probable associated discomfort: birds with large shanks tend to struggle more violently than do those with smaller shanks. Males are generally heavier and have thicker shanks than females. Therefore, we tested the hypothesis that, because the leg gaps of shackles are fixed in size, male broilers would struggle more than females. At 42 d of age, 264 floor-reared broilers were cooped in groups of 12 (six males and six females) and were transported from the university farm to the abattoir. Eighty of these served as test birds (n = 40/sex) and were shackled on a moving processing line with a bird of randomly selected sex on either side. Upon shackling, the latencies to struggle, numbers of struggling bouts, and total time spent struggling were recorded during a 1-min test period. Subsequently, the BW and circumference of the right shank (CRS) of each test bird were measured. Male birds were heavier and had thicker shanks than females (both P < 0.0001); they also struggled sooner (P < 0.01) and longer (P < 0.008). When data from males and females were pooled, CRS was negatively correlated with latency to struggle (r = -0.30; P < 0.006) and positively associated with SB (r = 0.23; P < 0.04) and total time spent struggling (r = 0.23; P < 0.04). However, there were no detectable correlations within sex. Body weight was not significantly correlated with any of the struggling behavior measures. Although other gender-related factors may be influential, an interpretation of our findings based on sex differences in CRS seems the most parsimonious. We conclude that use of shackles of fixed leg-gap size may contribute to increased struggling behavior in male broilers.

Abattoirs↗

Multicenter evaluation of AMPLICOR and automated COBAS AMPLICOR CT/NG tests for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

The fully automated COBAS AMPLICOR CT/NG and semiautomated AMPLICOR CT/NG tests were evaluated in a multicenter trial for their ability to detect Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections. Test performance compared to that of culturing was evaluated for 2,192 matched endocervical swab and urine specimens obtained from women and for 1, 981 matched urethral swab and urine specimens obtained from men. Culture-negative, PCR-positive specimens that tested positive in a confirmatory PCR test for an alternative target sequence within the N. gonorrhoeae 16S rRNA gene were considered to be true positives. The overall prevalences of gonorrhea were 6.6% in women and 20.1% in men. The COBAS AMPLICOR and AMPLICOR formats yielded concordant results for 98.8% of the specimens and exhibited virtually identical sensitivities and specificities. The results that follow are for the COBAS AMPLICOR format. With the infected patient as the reference standard, the resolved sensitivities of PCR were 92.4% for endocervical swab specimens and 64.8% for female urine specimens. There were no significant differences in these rates between women with and without symptoms. Among symptomatic men, COBAS AMPLICOR sensitivities were 94.1% for urine and 98.1% for urethral swabs; for asymptomatic men, the results were 42.3 and 73.1%, respectively. In comparison, the sensitivities of culturing were 84.8% for endocervical specimens, 92.7% for symptomatic male urethral specimens, and only 46.2% for urethral specimens obtained from asymptomatic men. When PCR results were analyzed as if only a single test had been performed on a single specimen type, the resolved sensitivity was always higher. The resolved specificities of PCR were 99.5% for endocervical swab specimens, 99.8% for female urine specimens, 98.9% for male urethral swab specimens, and 99.9% for male urine specimens. The internal control revealed that 2.1% of specimens were inhibitory when initially tested. Nevertheless, valid results were obtained for 99.2% of specimens because 60.0% of the inhibitory specimens were not inhibitory when a second aliquot was tested. The COBAS AMPLICOR CT/NG test for N. gonorrhoeae exhibited high sensitivity and specificity with urethral swab and urine specimens from men and endocervical swab specimens from women and thus is well suited for diagnosing and screening for N. gonorrhoeae infection.

Animals↗

Evaluation of nucleic acid amplification tests as reference tests for Chlamydia trachomatis infections in asymptomatic men.

Urine ligase chain reaction (LCR) and PCR tests and urethral swab culture were compared for their abilities to detect Chlamydia trachomatis infection in 3,639 asymptomatic men by using one-, two-, and three-test reference standards. Frozen urine at four of five participating centers was also tested by a transcription-mediated amplification assay which was used as a reference test. LCR increased the yield of positive results by 27% and PCR increased the yield of positive results by 26% over the yield of positive results by culture (n = 295). LCR and PCR sensitivities were similar, ranging from 80.4 to 93.5%, depending on the reference standard. Culture sensitivity was substantially less. A multiple-test standard yielded LCR, PCR, and culture specificities of 99.6%, with or without discrepant analysis. Test performance varied among centers partly due to different interpretations of the testing protocols. The study confirms that urine LCR and PCR for the detection of C. trachomatis have substantially improved sensitivities over that of urethral swab culture for testing of asymptomatic men, enabling screening of this important target group. These tests, perhaps in combination, are also candidate reference tests for the conduct of test evaluation studies.

Animals↗

Multicenter evaluation of the AMPLICOR and automated COBAS AMPLICOR CT/NG tests for detection of Chlamydia trachomatis.

The fully automated COBAS AMPLICOR CT/NG and semiautomated AMPLICOR CT/NG tests were evaluated in a multicenter trial for the ability to detect Chlamydia trachomatis infections. Test performance compared to that of culture was evaluated for 2,236 matched endocervical swab and urine specimens obtained from women and for 1,940 matched urethral swab and urine specimens obtained from men. Culture-negative, PCR-positive specimens that tested positive in a direct fluorescent-antibody test or in a confirmatory PCR test for an alternative target sequence were resolved as true positives. The overall prevalences of chlamydia were 2.4% in women and 7.2% in men. The COBAS AMPLICOR and AMPLICOR formats yielded concordant results for 98.1% of the specimens. With the infected patient as the reference standard, the resolved sensitivities of COBAS AMPLICOR were 89.7% for endocervical swab specimens, 89.2% for female urine specimens, 88.6% for male urethral swab specimens, and 90.3% for male urine specimens. When results were analyzed as if only a single test had been performed on a single specimen type, the resolved sensitivity was always higher. The resolved specificities of PCR were 99.4% for endocervical swab specimens, 99.0% for female urine specimens, 98.7% for male urethral swab specimens, and 98.4% for male urine specimens. The internal control revealed that 2.4% of the specimens were inhibitory when initially tested. Nevertheless, valid results were obtained for 98.6% of the specimens because 59.1% of the inhibitory specimens were not inhibitory when a second aliquot was tested. The COBAS AMPLICOR and AMPLICOR CT/NG tests for C. trachomatis exhibited equally high sensitivity and specificity with both urogenital swab and urine specimens and thus are well suited for screening for C. trachomatis infection.

Automation↗

Evaluation of the predictive value of Her-2/neu overexpression and p53 mutations in high-risk primary breast cancer patients treated with high-dose chemotherapy and autologous stem-cell transplantation.

PURPOSE: To ascertain the predictive value of Her-2/neu overexpression and p53 mutations, assessed by immunohistochemistry, in high-risk primary breast cancer (HRPBC) treated with high-dose chemotherapy (HDCT). PATIENTS AND METHODS: We obtained paraffin-embedded tumor blocks from 146 HRPBC patients previously enrolled at our program onto clinical trials of HDCT for four to nine involved axillary lymph nodes, > or = 10 involved axillary nodes, or inflammatory carcinoma. All patients received the same HDCT regimen, with cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, and carmustine (STAMP-I), followed by autologous stem-cell transplantation. Median follow-up was 42 months (range, 5 to 90 months). The same pathologist, blinded to clinical outcome, reviewed all immunostained slides. RESULTS: Positive results for Her-2/neu and p53 were found in 44.5% and 34% of the patients, respectively. Positivity for Her-2/neu was significantly associated with increased risk of relapse and death. No correlation was found between p53 mutations and relapse-free survival (RFS) or overall survival (OS). Multivariate analyses included Her-2/neu overexpression and the following variables previously identified as independent predictors of outcome in this population: tumor size, nodal ratio (number of involved nodes/number of dissected nodes), and hormone receptor status. All four variables had independent value. CONCLUSION: Her-2/neu overexpression is an independent negative predictor of RFS and OS in HRPBC treated with HDCT. Its inclusion in our previously described predictive model increases the predictive capacity of this model for the low-risk subgroup. In contrast, p53 mutations lack predictive value in this setting.

Adult↗

Tobacco or oral health: past progress, impending challenge.

BACKGROUND AND OVERVIEW: A number of significant events and research findings during the past 15 years have led to the dental profession's growing involvement in tobacco-use intervention activities. The author presents an overview of events and people responsible for the progress in furthering the cause of dentistry's activism in tobacco-use prevention and control. CLINICAL IMPLICATIONS: Dentistry has led the health professions in establishing a protocol for the prevention of tobacco use, a health behavior that causes or contributes to various oral diseases and adverse conditions. Dentists practicing in the 21st century cannot ignore patients' tobacco use. Treatment prognoses for periodontal therapy, wound healing, dental implants, cosmetic treatments and cancer therapy all are compromised by patients' tobacco use. Dentists must know what to do and say to prevent patients' tobacco use and aid patients in its cessation.

American Dental Association↗

Incidence of and risk factors for cataract among diabetes clinic attenders.

The incidence of and risk factors for cataract during a mean (standard deviation (SD)) follow-up period of 5.0 (3.0) (range 0.1-12.4) years were examined among 3606 patients (2001 male and 1605 female) with diabetes mellitus from three outpatient clinics at the University Hospital, Nottingham. Among the 3606 patients free of cataract at initial registration who attended the clinic at least twice in the period 1979-1992, the mean (SD) age was 49.2 (17.8) years with a mean (SD) duration of diabetes of 7.6 (9.8) years at initial registration. The incidence of cataract was 10.4 (95% confidence interval (CI), 9.0, 11.9) per 1000 person-years based on 18089 person-years of follow-up. The incidence for females (13.6 (95% CI, 11.0, 16.1)) was greater than in males (8 (95% CI, 6.3, 9. 7)) (P<0.001). The incidence of cataract in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM), non-insulin-treated and insulin-treated non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) were 7.1 (95% CI, 5. 4, 8.9), 11.7 (95% CI, 9.1, 14.3) and 17.8 (95% CI, 12.9, 22.7) per 1000 person-years, respectively. Age-adjustment substantially changed the ordering of risk associated with different types of diabetes. Using a Cox's Proportional Hazards Model for IDDM and NIDDM (insulin and non-insulin-treated) diabetes separately, age and any retinopathy were significant independent predictors of cataract for all groups. Poor metabolic control also was a significant independent predictor of cataract for the IDDM and insulin-treated NIDDM diabetes groups. Duration of diabetes was a significant independent predictor of cataract for the IDDM group. Age at diagnosis of diabetes, systolic and diastolic blood pressure, body mass index, proteinuria, cigarette smoking and creatinine had no significant independent association with cataract when other covariates were considered. These findings will help the identification of those diabetic patients at particular risk of cataract so that clinic time for screening of eyes can be appropriately focused and health care planning for people with diabetes considered.

Adult↗

Timidity in Japanese quail: effects of vitamin C and divergent selection for adrenocortical response.

Male Japanese quail chicks of two genetic lines selected for low (LS) or high (HS) adrenocortical responses to mechanical restraint were housed in mixed-line groups of 24 in four compartments of a multitier brooder battery at 20 days of age. Quail in two of the four compartments were given vitamin C (ascorbyl-2-polyphosphate, APP, 1 g L-ascorbic acid/L) solution for 48 h, whereas the other birds received untreated tap water as usual before they were tested at 23 days of age. At test, each quail was placed individually in a dark, sheltered compartment of an emergence box and allowed 1 min to acclimatise before a door was raised allowing access to an illuminated and exposed area. Vocalisation and the latencies to head and full emergence were then recorded to measure its fear levels. More LS quail vocalised than did HS ones. They also emerged more rapidly from the sheltered compartment into the illuminated one than HS birds. These findings further support our hypothesis that decreased fearfulness has accompanied genetic selection for reduced adrenocortical responsiveness. Treatment with APP reduced the latency to emerge fully into the exposed compartment, and there were no line x treatment interactions. These results suggest that vitamin C supplementation alleviated fearfulness, regardless of existing line differences in this behavioural trait.

Adrenal Cortex↗

Incidence of tumor-cell contamination in leukapheresis products of breast cancer patients mobilized with stem cell factor and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) or with G-CSF alone.

We have assessed tumor contamination of peripheral blood progenitor cells (PBPC) in 203 high-risk breast cancer patients who were prospectively randomized to mobilization with stem cell factor (SCF) plus granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) versus G-CSF alone. The patients then received high-dose cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, and carmustine (BCNU) with PBPC support. One bone marrow aspirate obtained before treatment, one whole blood specimen obtained before cytokine infusion, and one to five leukapheresis products were tested for the presence of tumor cells by an alkaline phosphatase immunocytochemical technique with a targeted sensitivity of 1.7 tumor cells per 10(6) hematopoietic cells. Tumor cells were detected in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and/or PBPC of 21 patients (10%). In 14 patients, bone marrow specimens were tumor-positive; in seven patients, premobilization whole blood specimens were tumor-positive, and in eight patients, leukapheresis products were tumor-positive. In five patients, repetitive or multiple specimens were tumor-positive, and in three cases, marrow, peripheral blood, and PBPC products were all tumor-positive. Nine of the patients in whom tumor cells were found in marrow or peripheral blood were clinical stage II to III and 12 were clinical stage IV. Nine of the tumor-positive patients were in the SCF + G-CSF arm and 12 were in the G-CSF arm. Tumor cells were detected in leukapheresis products of eight patients: three in the G-CSF + SCF arm and five in the G-CSF arm. We conclude that detectable tumor-cell contamination of bone marrow, peripheral blood, and/or PBPC occurred in approximately 10% of patients in this trial and was observed in stage II to III patients, as well as in stage IV patients. No significant difference could be found in the rate of PBPC tumor-cell contamination between patients who received SCF + G-CSF compared with those who received G-CSF alone. Neither mobilization regimen was found to increase the rate of tumor-cell contamination when control premobilization blood samples were compared with leukapheresis products.

Breast Neoplasms↗

The effect of an insulin releasing agent, BTS 67582, on advanced glycation end product formation in vitro.

BTS 67582 (1,1-dimethyl-2-(2-morpholinophenyl) guanidine fumarate) is an insulin-releasing agent currently in phase II clinical trials. Its effect on advanced glycation end product (AGE) formation was measured in the BSA/D-glucose and L-lysine/glucose-6-phosphate assay systems and Amadori product formation was measured in the BSA/D-glucose assay system, following a 3 week incubation period. In the BSA/D-glucose assay system, 200 mM BTS 67582 caused an approximate 70% inhibition in AGE formation (p<0.001), whilst at 20 mM and 2 mM it caused a marginal inhibition (21%, (p<0.001) and 8% respectively). 200 mM and 20 mM aminoguanidine-HCl inhibited AGE formation by 95% and 69% (p<0.001), respectively, whereas 2 mM aminoguanidine-HCl had no significant effect. Tolbutamide (200 microM) and glibenclamide (100 microM) had significant, but only marginal, effects on AGE formation (16% and 17%, respectively, p<0.01). In the BSA/D-glucose assay system 200 mM BTS 67582 and 200 mM aminoguanidine-HCl retarded Amadori product formation by 88% (p<0.001) and 60% (p<0.01), respectively. BTS 67582 at 20 mM and 2 mM was shown to inhibit Amadori product formation by 67% and 57%, respectively, (p<0.01). In the lysine and glucose-6-phosphate assay system 200 mM BTS 67582 and 200 mM aminoguanidine-HCl were shown to inhibit AGE formation by about 70% and 96% (p<0.001), respectively. Tolbutamide (200 microM) and glibenclamide (100 microM) had no significant effect on AGE formation.

Ferrous Compounds↗

Latency to traverse a T-maze at 2 days of age and later adrenocortical responses to an acute stressor in domestic chicks.

Latencies to escape from a T-maze, and thereby reinstate visual contact with conspecifics, were measured in broiler chicks at 2 days of age. Chicks were assigned to high- (HP) or low- (LP) performance categories if their escape latencies fell below 25 s or above 75 s, respectively. These chicks were then housed socially in 10 same-category groups (5 HP, 5 LP), each comprising eight birds. At 15 days of age, one chick was taken from each of two randomly selected cages (1 HP, 1 LP) and immediately bled (undisturbed controls). At the same time, another chick was taken from each of these boxes and immersed up to its neck in warm water (partial water immersion, PWI) for 15 min before blood was collected. All chicks were sexed after bleeding. There were no differences between the plasma corticosterone (CS) levels of undisturbed (control) HP and LP chicks. Exposure to PWI significantly increased circulating CS levels, and this elevation was more pronounced in LP than in HP chicks. Male chicks also showed higher stress-induced adrenocortical responses than did females. The present findings suggest that the T-maze responses of young chicks might predict their later adrenocortical responses to a known stressor. This relationship is discussed in terms of individual differences in fearfulness, ability to cope with challenge, and/or stress susceptibility.

Analysis of Variance↗

Control strategies for aeroallergens in an animal facility.

BACKGROUND: Prevalence of the occupational disease laboratory animal allergy could be reduced if aeroallergen reduction strategies are identified. OBJECTIVE: To reduce worker exposure to Mus m 1, an allergen from laboratory mice, the effect of filter cage tops, increased room ventilation, negatively pressurized ventilated cages, and ventilated cage-changing tables were evaluated. METHODS: Aeroallergen was collected in the ambient air and in the breathing zone and quantified by using a competitive immunoassay. RESULTS: When mice were housed in unventilated cages, ambient allergen was reduced from 5.1 ng/m3 with no cage top to 1.3 ng/m3 with a simple filter-sheet top and 0.8 ng/m3 with a fitted filter-bonnet top (P <. 05). Room ventilation was increased from 6 to 10, 15, and 20 air changes per hour and had little effect on aeroallergen levels and no impact on airborne particulate matter. When mice were housed in ventilated cages, ambient allergen was significantly reduced from 1. 1 ng/m3 at positive cage pressure to 0.3 ng/m3 at negative cage pressure (P <.05). Negative cage pressure combined with handling animals under a ventilated table reduced breathing zone allergen from 28 ng/m3 with neither control strategy in place to 9 ng/m3 (P <. 05). Use of a ventilated table controlled bacterial contamination, measured as colony forming units, found in negatively pressurized cages. CONCLUSION: Three aeroallergen control strategies are use of filter cage tops, operation of negatively pressurized cages, and use of ventilated changing tables.

Air Pollution↗

Post-mortem incidental finding of cytomegalovirus oophoritis after an allogeneic stem cell transplant.

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) disease is a common and serious complication of allogeneic stem cell transplantation (SCT). Its two most frequent manifestations are interstitial pneumonitis and gastroenteritis. We describe here the first reported case of CMV ovarian infection in an allo-SCT recipient. This patient was included in a clinical trial of high-dose chemotherapy (HDCT) with HLA-matched peripheral SCT for metastatic breast cancer. She expired 53 days after transplantation from organ failure unrelated to her CMV oophoritis.

Antineoplastic Combined Chemotherapy Protocols↗

Modification of the pharmacokinetics of high-dose cyclophosphamide and cisplatin by antiemetics.

Interpatient variability in exposure to certain chemotherapy agents can influence patient outcome, particularly with high-dose chemotherapy. We evaluated the possibility of a pharmacokinetic (PK) drug-drug interaction between the antiemetic agents and high-dose cyclophosphamide, cisplatin and BCNU (CPA/cDDP/BCNU). Twenty-three self-selected patients treated with high-dose CPA/cDDP/BCNU followed by autologous hematopoietic progenitor cell support (AHPCS) received ondansetron, lorazepam and diphenhydramine as antiemetics. PK parameters for each chemotherapeutic drug in the regimen were compared with those of 129 patients who received exactly the same chemotherapy but an antiemetic regimen substituting prochlorperazine for ondansetron. In addition, we performed a review of the English literature for reported drug-drug interactions between antiemetics and chemotherapy agents that led to modifications in any PK parameters of the chemotherapy agent. Our retrospective study showed that the mean area under the curve (AUC) for both cyclophosphamide (76,600 vs 90,600 microg/ml/min, P=0.001) and cisplatin (525 vs 648 microg/ml/min, P = 0.01) were significantly lower in the ondansetron group when compared with the prochlorperazine group. The AUC for BCNU was not significantly different in both groups (544 vs 677, P = 0.43). We found only one report of modifications of the PK parameters of high-dose chemotherapy agents due to drug-drug interactions with the most commonly used antiemetics in a review of the English literature between 1966 and 1995. We concluded that the AUC of high-dose cyclophosphamide and cisplatin are significantly lower when ondansetron, as opposed to prochlorperazine, is used as the antiemetic. The small sample size and heterogeneity of this group of patients precludes any outcome analysis of pharmacodynamic endpoints such as toxicity or antitumor effect. Nevertheless, the potential for interactions between antiemetics and chemotherapy agents should be taken into account when using different high-dose chemotherapy regimens.

Adult↗