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M Nishimura

Publications and source records attributed to M Nishimura.

At least 757 records · Page 42Linked to original sources

High-intensity proton and T2-weighted MRI signals in the globus pallidus in juvenile-type of dentatorubral and pallidoluysian atrophy.

Dentatorubral and pallidoluysian atrophy (DRPLA) is an autosomal dominant neurodegenerative disorder. An expanded CAG trinucleotide repeat sequence motif in a gene on the short arm of chromosome 12 has recently been identified in patients with DRPLA. Juvenile-type DRPLA is characterized by childhood onset and progressive myoclonic epilepsy (PME). According to the pathological study, the degeneration of the globus pallidus is more marked in this than in other types. We observed high-intensity signals in the globus pallidus on proton and T2-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in a patient clinically diagnosed as juvenile-type DRPLA who had the expanded CAG trinucleotide repeat motif in the DRPLA gene. The globus pallidus may be affected in the early stages of this type of DRPLA, and MRI may be useful for the early diagnosis of DRPLA.

Atrophy↗

Centrally induced vasopressor and sympathetic responses to a novel endogenous peptide, adrenomedullin, in anesthetized rats.

Possible central actions of adrenomedullin were explored and compared with the peripheral effects by injecting it into the lateral ventricle, cisterna magna, and femoral vein in urethane-anesthetized rats. Adrenomedullin, 1.0 to 3.0 nmol/kg, injected intravenously (i.v.), caused a transient vasodepression of about 10 to 30 mm Hg, dose dependently, which lasted for < 15 min. On the other hand, intracerebroventricular (ICV) and intracisternal (IC) injections of adrenomedullin elicited sustained elevations of arterial pressure of gradual onset, dose dependently; the arterial pressure started to rise at about 3 min after the injection, and gained peak response after > 20 min. The pressor response lasted for > 2 h. Heart rate was not significantly influenced by these doses of adrenomedullin. The abdominal sympathetic outflow was markedly increased in relation to the blood pressure elevation. The time-course of the responses was quite similar with both ICV and IC injections. Hypotensive effects of i.v. injected adrenomedullin was partially attenuated, and the centrally induced vasopressor responses were abolished by the pretreatment with human calcitonin gene-related peptide (hCGRP)-receptor antagonist, hCGRP(8-37). These findings indicate that the receptors for adrenomedullin exist in the brain, and that the receptor site may be anatomically far from the surface of the brain and the ventricular system because the onset of the pressor response was delayed. Or, CGRP and adrenomedullin may share the same receptors, particularly in the brain.

Adrenomedullin↗

Demonstration of human T lymphotropic virus type I (HTLV-I)-specific T cell responses from seronegative and polymerase chain reaction-negative persons exposed to HTLV-I.

Human T lymphotropic virus type I (HTLV-I) is a human retrovirus etiologically linked to adult T cell leukemia and the progressive chronic neurologic disease HTLV-I-associated myelopathy/tropical spastic paraparesis. Described is a method that measures the production of interleukin-2 from HTLV-I synthetic peptide-stimulated peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBL) of HTLV-I-infected persons. The peptides correspond to immunogenic regions of the HTLV-I Env and Tax proteins. Significantly, this assay demonstrated T cell responses to these HTLV-I peptides from coded PBL samples in 7 of 19 HTLV-I-seronegative polymerase chain reaction-negative persons known to have been exposed to HTLV-I but in none of 16 matched controls without risk factors for exposure (P = .007). The implications of this finding are discussed.

Adult↗

A 36-kDa protein of the dense bodies of smooth muscle cells.

We purified a 36-kDa protein from a low-salt, alkaline extract of chicken gizzard smooth muscle by sequential column chromatography using DEAE-Cellurofine A-800 m, hydroxylapatite, and CM-Cellurofine C-500. This protein decreased the low-shear viscosity of actin filaments and coprecipitated with them by centrifugation at 18,500 x g. Electron microscopy showed that the 36-kda peptide bundled actin filaments. Immunoblot analysis revealed that an affinity-purified antibody against the 36-kDa protein reacted exclusively with the 36-kDa protein band of smooth muscle. In indirect immunofluorescence microscopy, the affinity-purified anti-36-kDa protein antibody stained the dotty structures of isolated smooth muscle cells, while in post-embedding immunoelectron microscopy, most of the colloidal gold particles representing the 36-kDa protein were found on the dense bodies of ultrathin sections of chicken gizzard smooth muscle cells. The antibody did not stain the dense plaques of isolated smooth muscle cells. Judging from its molecular weight, the 36-kDa protein is concluded to be a new component of the dense bodies of smooth muscle.

Actins↗

Comparison of inspiratory work of breathing between flow-triggered and pressure-triggered demand flow systems in rabbits.

OBJECTIVES: Flow-triggered continuous positive airway pressure decreases the inspiratory work of breathing in adults when compared with pressure-triggered continuous positive airway pressure. However, the effect of flow-triggered continuous positive airway pressure on work of breathing in neonates is not known. Our objective was to determine if flow-triggering was superior to pressure triggering in the presence of narrow endotracheal tubes, such as those tubes used in neonates. DESIGN: Prospective evaluation using within-animal comparison of flow-triggering and pressure-triggering demand flow systems. SETTING: The animal laboratory in a university hospital. SUBJECTS: Six spontaneously breathing white rabbits, tracheostomized and intubated with 3- and 4-mm inner diameter endotracheal tubes. INTERVENTIONS: The animals were connected to a ventilator through a standard respiratory circuit. The ventilator was randomly operated in the following modes: flow-triggered continuous positive airway pressure, pressure-triggered continuous positive airway pressure, flow-triggered with 5 cm H2O pressure support ventilation, and pressure-triggered with 5 cm H2O pressure support ventilation. MEASUREMENTS AND MAIN RESULTS: Esophageal pressure, airway pressure, and flow signals were monitored. Control data were obtained while the rabbits were breathing room air through the endotracheal tube. With 3-mm inner diameter endotracheal tubes, the negative deflection of esophageal pressure during flow-triggered continuous positive airway pressure was significantly less than control; however, negative deflection of esophageal pressure during pressure-triggered continuous positive airway pressure did not significantly differ from control. The application of 5 cm H2O pressure support ventilation with flow-triggering decreased negative deflection of esophageal pressure significantly compared with flow-triggered continuous positive airway pressure, pressure-triggered continuous positive airway pressure, and control. With endotracheal tube inner diameter of 4 mm, flow-triggered continuous positive airway pressure and pressure-triggered continuous positive airway pressure did not show any differences compared to control. Negative deflection of esophageal pressure differed under all conditions except control when results with the 3-mm inner diameter endotracheal tube were compared with the 4-mm inner diameter endotracheal tube. CONCLUSIONS: Flow-triggering is superior to pressure-triggering in the presence of a 3-mm inner diameter endotracheal tube. This difference was not clear with a 4-mm inner diameter endotracheal tube. The size of the endotracheal tube may be the most important variable in evaluating the approach used to ventilate small neonates.

Air Pressure↗

Enzyme release from mitochondria during reoxygenation of rat liver.

Reoxygenation-induced release of mitochondrial aspartate aminotransferase (mAST) into the cytosol was studied using perfused rat liver. As the absolute activity of mAST in the perfusate did not indicate the degree of mitochondrial enzyme release, the following 3 methods were applied: measurement of the mAST to total AST ratio in the efferent perfusate, the digitonin infusion method, and measurement of mAST activity in the cytosolic compartment isolated from perfused livers. The results by all 3 methods were consistent and showed that mitochondrial injury occurs on reoxygenation. The mitochondrial Ca2+ content was proportional to the extent of mAST release during reoxygenation, indicating involvement of Ca2+ in the enzyme release. CsA, a potent inhibitor of Ca(2+)-induced increase in permeability of the mitochondrial membrane, completely prevented mAST release on reoxygenation. We conclude that during reoxygenation of hypoxic liver, mAST leaks into the cytosol in a Ca(2+)-dependent, CsA-sensitive manner.

Animals↗

Anti-obesity and anti-diabetic effects of carteolol in non-insulin-dependent diabetic mice.

1. When carteolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, was administered to KK-Ay/Ta Jc1 mice that are obese and develop spontaneously non-insulin dependent diabetes, their increase in bodyweight was arrested from the age of 16 weeks. Since their intake of food and water was not influenced by carteolol treatment, compared with the control KK-Ay/Ta Jc1 mice, abolition of the weight gain might be attributed to increased energy metabolism. 2. Non-fasting serum glucose levels in carteolol-treated mice at the age of 17 weeks were within normal range (118 +/- 4 vs 186 +/- 12 mg/dL). An intraperitoneal glucose-tolerance test revealed that the carteolol treatment markedly restored glucose metabolism; fasting plasma glucose (88 +/- 6 mg/dL) was within normal range, and immunoreactive insulin (IRI; 5.8 +/- 0.8 vs 33.3 +/- 10.5 ng/mL) and plasma glucose levels at 60 min post glucose (361 +/- 44 vs 541 +/- 32 mg/dL) were significantly lower in carteolol-treated mice than those in the control group at the age of 20 weeks. 3. From these findings, carteolol is considered to have little effect on the growth of mice but to correct the obesity that develops after age 16 weeks, when their growth terminates. In addition, the normalization of blood glucose and marked decrease in IRI levels suggests that carteolol improves glucose tolerance by increasing the insulin sensitivity. 4. Since brown adipose tissue (BAT) is closely associated with thermogenesis and energy consumption, we tested whether carteolol may affect BAT.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

Adipose Tissue, Brown↗

Heterogenous activity of BRL 35135, a beta 3-adrenoceptor agonist, in thermogenesis and increased blood flow in brown adipose tissue in anaesthetized rats.

1. The effects of BRL 35135, a beta 3-adrenergic agonist, on body temperature and regional blood flow in brown adipose tissue (BAT) were simultaneously recorded in anaesthetized rats and compared to isoproterenol. 2. BRL 35135 at doses of 0.1 and 1 micrograms/kg (i.v.) induced dose-dependent increases in BAT temperature with minimal effects on systemic diastolic blood pressure (DBP), heart rate (HR) and BAT blood flow. 3. The thermogenic effect of BRL 35135 at a dose of 10 micrograms/kg (i.v.) was smaller than that at a dose of 1 microgram/kg, and was accompanied by a marked increase in BAT blood flow. 4. Isoproterenol at doses of 0.01-1 microgram/kg (i.v.) dose-dependently increased HR and BAT blood flow and decreased DBP. It did not affect BAT temperature. 5. These findings indicate that unlike isoproterenol, BRL 35135, at the lower doses, selectively causes thermogenesis in BAT which was detectable as changes in BAT temperature, and that the vasodilator effect in BAT is not as sensitive as the thermogenic effect of beta 3-adrenergic agonists.

Adipose Tissue, Brown↗

Moment analysis of hepatic local disposition of allopurinol and oxipurinol: metabolism kinetics from allopurinol to oxipurinol in the rat isolated perfused liver.

Drug metabolism in the liver was examined by the rat isolated perfused liver using the single-pass bolus-input technique. The test compounds, allopurinol and its metabolite oxipurinol, were independently introduced into the liver from the portal vein, and the concentration profiles in the venous outflow were monitored and kinetically analysed by moment theory. The recovery ratios of allopurinol and oxipurinol after the individual administration of each drug were estimated to be 0.17 (+/- 0.08 s.d.) and 1.03 (+/- 0.02 s.d.), respectively. The outflow recovery ratio of oxipurinol as the metabolite after allopurinol administration was estimated to be 0.80 (+/- 0.07 s.d.). These results indicate that the combined outflow recovery of the precursor and the metabolite after allopurinol administration is almost 100% in the rat liver.

Allopurinol↗

[Investigation of Chlamydia trachomatis-specific IgA, IgG antibody with EIA method].

Recently, two new kits, HITAZYME (Hitachi Chemical Co., Ltd.) and SERO IPALISA (Savyon Diagnostics, Ltd.), for the assay of anti-C. trachomatis antibodies by the enzyme immunoassay (EIA) method have been developed and put into clinical application. In the study reported here, the authors investigated the clinical usefulness of these assay kits, together with the IPAzyme and micro-IF test, in the diagnosis of cases of urogenital tract C. trachomatis infections. 1. The positive rates for IgA antibodies, which are considered to be an indicator of active infection, obtained with the HITAZYME and SERO IPALISA kits in the 82 antigen-positive cases were significantly (p < 0.005) higher than the rates obtained with the IPAzyme and micro-IF test. These results showed the usefulness of the HITAZYME and SERO IPALISA kits for detecting C. trachomatis infections. 2. A comparison was made of the assay results obtained with the HITAZYME and SERO IPALISA kits, and it was found that there was a large number of cases (142) that tested negative for IgA antibodies with the HITAZYME but positive with the SERO IPALISA kit. We carried out a confirmatory test on the specimens of cases for which the results obtained with the HITAZYME and SERO IPALISA kits were not in agreement. This test employed the Western blotting method using COMC (the antigen extracted from EB of C. trachomatis strain L2 and used in the HITAZYME kit) and whole EB of C. trachomatis strain L2 (the antigen used in the SERO IPALISA kit). The results showed a significantly higher degree of agreement between the HITAZYME kit data and the Western blotting data than between the SERO IPALISA kit data and the Western blotting data. 3. In addition, with the objective of investigating the existence of cross reactivity with anti-C. pneumoniae antibodies, we performed Western blotting using as the antigen crude whole EB of C. pneumoniae strain TW-183. The results showed that anti-C. pneumoniae antibodies were detected in 25 of 35 (71.4%) cases that were negative with C. trachomatis antigen and the HITAZYME kit and positive with the SERO IPALISA kit. These findings indicate a strong possibility that these cases positive with the SERO IPALISA kit are due to a cross reaction with anti-C. pneumoniae antibodies.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)

Antibodies, Bacterial↗

[Inhibition of biofilm formation by clarithromycin (CAM) in an experimental model of complicated bladder infection--in vitro study using automated simulation of urinary antimicrobial concentration].

The role of clarithromycin (CAM) in biofilm formation has recently been reported. Inhibition of the production or promotion of the dissolution of the glycocalyx, a major component of biofilm, has been implicated in its mechanism of action. However, the details remain unclear. We used an experimental model of complicated urinary bladder infection and automated simulation of the variations in urinary antimicrobial concentration to study the efficacy of CMA in inhibiting biofilm formation and obtained the following results. 1) Prior to biofilm formation, Pseudomonas aeruginosa (P. aeruginosa) was exposed to ciprofloxacin (CPFX, MIC: 8 micrograms/ml), which was active against the organism, at a dose of 200 mg t.i.d. for 7 days. The bacteria were apparently eradicated from the culture medium in the experimental model of bladder infection (model bladder) after 32 hours. However, when the medium was changed to eliminate the antimicrobial agent on Day 7, bacterial regrowth was initiated after 4 hours. Scanning electron microscopy demonstrated sequential biofilm formation on the surface of glass beads in the model bladder diverticulumn, suggesting inside the biofilm were a source of regrowth. 2) Prior to biofilm formation, P. aeruginosa was also exposed to CAM alone, which has no antimicrobial activity against the organism (MIC: > 128 micrograms/ml) at a dose of 200 mg t.i.d. for 7 days. In this situation, CAM was not active against P. aeruginosa and the bactericidal concentration in the model bladder did not decrease markedly, reaching the initial level (10(7) CFU/ml) within 48 hours. However, although numerous bacteria were attached to the glass beads in the diverticulum, no biofilm was formed. 3) Exposure to a combination of CPFX and CAM (each at 200 mg t.i.d. for 7 days) resulted in the eradication of bacteria from the model bladder at 32 hours, and no bacterial regrowth was demonstrated after the medium was exchanged on Day 7. In addition, no biofilm was formed and the bacteria did not become attached to the glass beads. 4) The content of alginate, a major component of P. aeruginosa biofilm, was measured per 5 glass beads on Day 3, 5, and 7 after starting drug administration. The alginate content increased with time when CPFX was given alone at a dose of 200 mg t.i.d..(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 400 WORDS)

Biofilms↗

[An experimental examination of the significance of the peak antimicrobial concentration value in urine and time above MIC on the effect of antimicrobial agents--an examination using a severely complicated in vitro bladder model with an autosimulation system for antimicrobial concentration in urine].

Using a severely complicated in vitro bladder model with a computer-controlled autosimulation system for antimicrobial concentration in urine, we examined the significance of the peak concentration value and time above MIC, and obtained the following results. 1. Regarding the initial bactericidal speed, the higher the peak concentration value was, the more quickly the bacterial concentration decreased. 2. Concerning the minimum value of bacterial concentration in the model bladder, the higher the peak concentration value was, the more the level tended to decrease. 3. Regarding inhibition of regrowth of bacteria (ERT) 1) When a particular antimicrobial agent had no PAE on bacteria, the viable bacterial count curve was similar in cases of peak antimicrobial concentration values of higher than 8 MIC. 2) On the other hand, when an antimicrobial agent had PAE on bacteria, regrowth of bacteria occurred quickly below a certain peak concentration (24 MIC or 64 MIC value), although there was some difference depending on the type of antimicrobial agents. Thus, it was suggested that the peak concentration above that level be attained and maintration above that level be attained and maintained for some time were in order to obtain PAE adequately. 4. It is concluded from the aforementioned facts that two factors, a certain high concentration and a certain continued time are necessary for both antimicrobial agent with metabolic disorder and antimicrobial agent with cell wall synthetic inhibition to obtain proper antimicrobial effect. The condition of their necessity differed slightly according to the two different agents.

Adult↗

[Study on MIC breakpoint and method of antimicrobial chemotherapy for moderately complicated urinary tract infection--study using an automatic simulator of urinary antimicrobial agent concentrations].

We experimentally investigated an efficient administrating method of antimicribials prior to the clinical treatment of complicated urinary tract infection without catheter. An experimental model of moderately complicated urinary tract infection, which can simulate changes in the urinary concentration of antimicrobials by means of previously reported computer control method, was used for the experiment. The following results were obtained. 1. At first, for complicated UTI cases without an indwelling catheter, an investigation was made of the clinical therapy results to determine the upper MIC range of bacteria, including isolated strains, that can be nearly eliminated following treatment, by the administration method. We then estimated the clinical breakpoint. 2. By adjusting the size of the diverticulum in a urinary bladder model, we prepared a model which gave comparatively good agreement between the clinical and experimental breakpoints. 3. The clinical therapy results revealed that by the clinical breakpoint was higher in degree of coverage of the MIC distribution of causative bacteria associated with a higher actual clinical elimination rate and a higher efficacy rate. 4. It was surmised that an efficient administration method for complicated UTI without an indwelling catheter can be established if the urinary bladder model and the following approach are applied: prior to clinical treatment it should be determined what would be high enough to cover 70% of the MIC distribution of the estimated causative bacteria of UTI, and then an administration method which would yield that concentration as the experimental breakpoint should be devised.

Anti-Bacterial Agents↗

[Therapeutic study on biofilm of the urinary tract using a severely complicated bladder model (biofilm model of the urinary tract)--experimental study using an automatic simulator of urinary antimicrobial agent concentration, and clinical study].

For the purpose of conducting a therapeutic study on biofilm of the urinary tract, we devised a computer-controlled severely complicated bladder model (biofilm model of the urinary tract) enabling us to simulate the time-course of the concentration of antimicrobial agents in the urine. Using this model, we investigated clarithromycin (CAM), which has been reported to have anti-biofilm action, at concentrations close to its urinary levels at the time of clinical use in order to predict its effect on biofilm of the urinary tract. On the basis of those experimental results, we also conducted a clinical examination. The following results were obtained. 1. The action of ciprofloxacin (CPFX, MIC: 8 micrograms/ml) alone, which shows anti-P. aeruginosa activity, caused apparent elimination of P. aeruginosa from the model. However, regrowth of the microbes occurred when CPFX was removed from the bladder model. Moreover, the biofilm was not eliminated by the antimicrobial action of CPFX, and this was surmised to be the cause of the regrowth. 2. CAM (MIC: above 128 micrograms/ml), which has no anti-P. aeruginosa activity, was similarly tested as anti-biofilm agent when added alone to the biofilm model. The P. aeruginosa recovered to its initial concentration within 48 hours, but the biofilm disappeared due to the action of CAM. 3. The combined action of CPFX and CAM caused microbial elimination from the bladder model without microbial regrowth, even after these antimicrobial agents were removed from the bladder model. After the action of CPFX and CAM, the biofilm disappeared, and no microbial adherence was noted. 4. Measurement of time-course of the alginate content, which is the main component of P. aeruginosa biofilm, in the presence of CAM found that the alginate content decreased below the limit of detection after day 5. 5. The clinical study of complicated urinary tract infection revealed the microbial elimination rate and the efficacy rate to be higher in the combined CPFX-CAM administration group than in the CPFX-only administration group. 6. Based on the above results, we surmise that the combined use of an antimicrobial agent which is active against the causative microbe and anti-biofilm agent such as CAM will show some degree of efficacy in eliminating biofilm of the urinary tract.

Ciprofloxacin↗

[Fundamental and clinical studies on MIC breakpoint of SY5555 for Enterococcus faecalis in complicated urinary tract infections of moderate severity].

A multicenter clinical study was carried out to investigate the clinical efficacy of SY5555 from viewpoint of its MIC breakpoint for Enterococcus faecalis. SY5555 was administered in dosages of 150 mg x 3/day and 300 mg x 3/day, for 7 days, to patients with complicated urinary tract infections of moderate severity (no indwelling catheter). Based primarily on the bacteriological efficacy (eradication) as the criterion for evaluation, the MIC breakpoint of SY5555 was investigated. SY5555 showed potent antimicrobial activity towards E. faecalis, and its MIC80 value for the clinical isolates of this bacterial species was 1.56 micrograms/ml. Analysis was carried out to determine the extent to which this in vitro activity is corroborated by the drug's clinical efficacy in eradicating E. faecalis. 1. Experimental study In a study employing an experimental model of complicated bladder infections of moderate severity, it was judged that the MIC breakpoints of SY5555 administered at 150 mg x 3/day and 300 mg x 3/day were 2 micrograms/ml and 8 micrograms/ml. 2. Clinical study SY5555 was administered at 150 mg x 3/day (7 days) to six patients and at 300 mg x 3/day (7 days) to 32 patients, and the clinical efficacy of these treatments was investigated. 2.1. Investigation of the clinical MIC breakpoint showed it to be 12.5 micrograms/ml for both the 150 mg x 3/day and 300 mg x 3/day regimens. However, since the number of cases in this study was small, analysis was performed of the data from a large number of cases by including the cases registered in a nation-wide Phase II study of SY5555. That analysis showed the clinical MIC breakpoint for the two dosages to be 3.13 micrograms/ml and 6.25 micrograms/ml. Thus, this analysis of large number of cases yielded clinical MIC breakpoint that are in agreement with the abovementioned experimental MIC breakpoints. 2.2. In the evaluation of the efficacy rate using the UTI drug efficacy evaluation criteria, cases rated as "good" or "excellent" numbered five of the six patients in the 150 mg x 3/day treatment group and 25 of the 32 (78.1%) patients in the 300 mg x 3/day treatment group, or 30/33 (78.9%) cases overall. These efficacy rates are about the same as the 82.0% reported for the nation-wide Phase II study. 2.3. Each of the strains of E. faecalis isolated from the patients was found to be eradicated by the SY5555 treatment: four strains in the 150 mg dosage group (the MIC of each was 3.13 micrograms/ml or less) and 18 strains in the 300 mg dosage group (the MIC of each was 6.25 micrograms/ml or less). Moreover, in both dosage groups, E. faecalis was not found to recur after the SY5555 treatment. 3. Conclusions In consideration of the above findings in the investigations of treatment of patients with complicated urinary tract infections of moderate severity, the following conclusions can be drawn. 3.1. In antimicrobial treatment employing SY5555 in a regimen consisting of 300 mg x 3/day for 7 days, the clinical breakpoint is in the range of 6.25-12.5 micrograms/ml. 3.2. In particular, as would be surmised from the fact that the MIC80 value of SY5555 for E. faecalis isolated is 1.56 micrograms/ml, this drug shows quite strong efficacy in the eradication of E. faecalis from cases of complicated urinary tract infection.

Adult↗