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M McGowan

Publications and source records attributed to M McGowan.

At least 19 recordsLinked to original sources

Osmotic response element is required for the induction of aldose reductase by tumor necrosis factor-alpha.

Induction of aldose reductase (AR) was observed in human cells treated with tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha). AR protein expression increased severalfold in human liver cells after 1 day of exposure to 100 units/ml TNF-alpha. An increase in AR transcripts was also observed in human liver cells after 3 h of TNF-alpha treatment, reaching a maximum level of 11-fold at 48 h. Among the three inflammatory cytokines: TNF-alpha, interleukin-1, and interferon-gamma, TNF-alpha (100 units/ml) gave the most induction of AR. Differences in the pattern of AR induction were observed in human liver, lens, and retinal pigment epithelial cells with increasing concentrations of TNF-alpha. A similar pattern of AR promoter response was observed between TNF-alpha and osmotically stressed human liver cells. The deletion of the osmotic response element (ORE) abolished the induction by TNF-alpha and osmotic stress. A point mutation that converts ORE to a nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-kappaB) sequence abolished the osmotic response but maintained the TNF-alpha response. Electrophoretic gel mobility shift assays showed two NF-kappaB proteins, p50 and p52, capable of binding ORE sequence, and gel shift Western assay detected NF-kappaB proteins p50 and p65 in the ORE complex. Inhibitors of NF-kappaB signaling, lactacystin, and MG132 abolished the AR promoter response to TNF-alpha.

Aldehyde Reductase↗

Effect of a primary-care-based epilepsy specialist nurse service on quality of care from the patients' perspective: quasi-experimental evaluation.

Initiatives to improve epilepsy care have emphasized the role of specialist nurses. Formal evaluation of these initiatives are scarce. Further evaluative studies are required to ascertain the optimal means of providing epilepsy care. This study aimed to assess the effect of a primary-care-based epilepsy specialist nurse service on patients' reported health status, perceived quality of life, health care use, attitudes to health care, and provision of information. A quasi-experimental follow-up questionnaire survey was sent to all 574 patients aged 16 years or over and receiving antiepileptic drugs for epilepsy, registered in 14 general practices in north-west Bristol. Patients in seven practices who received the new service (intervention patients) were compared with patients in seven practices who did not (control patients). Follow-up comparisons between intervention and control patients were adjusted for baseline differences. Response rates to the first, second and both surveys were 66.2%, 68.6% and 50.9%, respectively. Intervention patients were more likely than control patients to have discussed most epilepsy topics with general practitioners and/or hospital doctors. and were significantly more likely to have categorized general practitioner care as excellent (odds ratio (OR) 2.30, 95% confidence intervals (CI) 1.12-4.70). Intervention patients were significantly less likely than controls to have reported never missing taking their anti-epileptic drugs (OR 0.48, 95% CI0.24-0.94). There were no significant changes in measures of health status, use of other health care services, and perceived quality of life between intervention and control patients. This study provides evidence of an improvement, after 1 year, in communication and satisfaction but not health status resulting from the introduction of a primary-care-based epilepsy service.

Adult↗

Effect of a primary care based epilepsy specialist nurse service on quality of care from the patients' perspective: results at two-years follow-up.

Epilepsy specialist nurses have the potential to improve the quality of care of community-based patients with epilepsy, although evidence of their effectiveness is limited by the lack of formal or long-term evaluation. Results of a controlled trial that assessed the effectiveness of a primary care based specialist nurse-led service suggested improvements in communication and satisfaction but not health status at one-year follow-up. A second follow-up was conducted to assess the effects after two years. Patients who reported having seen the nurse at least once in the two years ('users') were compared with those who had not ('non-users'). Comparisons between users and non-users were adjusted for baseline differences. Results were based on 40% of all 595 adult patients known to have epilepsy in 14 general practices and who answered questionnaires at baseline and two years later. The new epilepsy service was used more by those with greatest needs for care. Users of the new service were significantly more likely than non-users to have discussed 8 of 11 topics asked about epilepsy [odds ratios (ORs) ranging from 2.42 to 7.91] with their general practitioner (GP), and 2 of the 11 topics with the hospital doctor (ORs 5.59, 5. 74). Service users were significantly less likely than non-users to feel their GP knew enough about epilepsy [OR 0.27, 95% confidence intervals (CI) 0.74-0.98], and significantly more likely to report epilepsy as having an adverse impact on 3 of 10 areas of everyday life (ORs ranging from 2.09 to 2.50). Users were more likely than non-users to have seen their GP for any reason in the previous year and to change their medication from use of more than one antiepileptic drug to monotherapy, although findings were not significant. Results suggest that the epilepsy specialist nurse service is not a cost-reducing substitute, particularly for general practitioner care, but it appears to improve communication and prescribing of monotherapy, and increases access for the most needy. The service may, however, have an adverse impact on patients' perceptions of the effects of epilepsy on aspects of everyday life.

Adult↗

Physeal fractures of the ankle.

Because the distal tibia is the third most common physeal injury, being able to assess and treat such a fracture accurately is a skill worth enhancing. Many factors contribute to the outcome of physeal injuries, but the physician's general knowledge of the physis, ability to order the right diagnostic tests, and classify the fracture can be the determining factors of quality care.

Adolescent↗

Identification of a novel cis-element required for the constitutive activity and osmotic response of the rat aldose reductase promoter.

A new and essential cis-element AEE (aldose reductase enhancer element), necessary for the constitutive activity and the osmotic stress response of rat aldose reductase transcription in a rat liver cell line, has been identified. In transient transfection assays, an increase in promoter activity, up to 3.8-fold, was observed with osmotic stress (600 mosm/kg H2O) using a luciferase reporter gene construct containing aldose reductase promoter sequence from -1,094 base pair (bp) to +23 bp. A deletion between -1,071 and -895 bp reduced the constitutive activity and abolished the osmotic response of the promoter. Exonuclease III mediated in vivo DNA footprinting and dimethyl sulfate in vivo footprinting revealed DNA protection of a 32-bp region and two guanosines (G) within this region protected from methylation, respectively. Electrophoretic gel mobility shift assays using whole liver cell extracts showed protein binding, under both normal and stressed conditions. Deletion of the sequence between the two guanosines protected by in vivo dimethyl sulfate DNA footprinting (GAAGAGTG) in a luciferase construct (-1,094 bp to +23 bp) abolished the constitutive promoter activity. One copy of AEE fused to the thymidine kinase promoter gave a maximum constitutive activity of 7.7-fold and a maximum osmotic response activity of 6. 7-fold.

Aldehyde Reductase↗

Patient documentation. On the records.

Documentation of patient care is frequently the Achilles heel of clinical services. The use of a multidisciplinary, semi-structured healthcare record may achieve improvements, but it needs to be coupled with appropriate strategies to overcome professional and cultural barriers to unified documentation. When implementing changes, clinical staff may overestimate their clinical information needs while underestimating the problems of its routine collection.

Documentation↗

Patients' experience of epilepsy and health care.

OBJECTIVE: The aim of this study was to assess the severity of epilepsy and its effect on patients lives, and to describe patients' use of and attitudes to health care. METHOD: A questionnaire was sent to 595 people with epilepsy identified from 14 general practices in north-west Bristol. All patients aged 16 years and over receiving anti-epileptic medication for their epilepsy were included in the study. Areas investigated included severity of epilepsy and its effect on quality of life, anti-epileptic medication and its perceived effect, health care utilization and preferences for health care. RESULTS: Seizure frequency was strongly associated with adverse effects of epilepsy. Attacks of epilepsy were experienced at least monthly by 20.4% (95% confidence intervals (Cl) 17.0-23.7%) of patients, 29.4% (25.4-33.4%) took more than one anti-epileptic drug, 56.1% (50.1-62.2%) reported drug side effects, 74.1% (70.3-77.8%) would prefer to receive all or most of their epilepsy care in a general practice setting, and 69.8% (63.5-76.2%) would like contact with a primary care-based epilepsy specialist nurse. During the previous year 42.4% (35.9-48.8%) of patients had not seen a doctor about their epilepsy. Of patients who had attended the general practice only 13.4% (9.6-17.2%) had regular arrangements to see their GP about epilepsy. Patients receiving both primary and secondary care had the greatest needs and wants for improved care. CONCLUSIONS: Structured care, including regular appointments, co-ordination of primary and secondary care, and increased monitoring and discussion, may improve the quality of life of people with epilepsy, but requires evaluation.

Adolescent↗

Detection of calves persistently infected with bovine pestivirus in a sample of dairy calves in south-eastern Queensland.

OBJECTIVE: To determine the proportion and incidence of calves persistently infected with bovine pestivirus in calves (n = 1521) supplied to the Tick Fever Research Centre and to assess the test regime to detect calves persistently infected with bovine pestivirus. DESIGN: Calves, 1 to 6 weeks old, selected for use in the production of the tick fever vaccine were collected from 21 properties in 56 separate groups between October 1990 and December 1996. Each group was examined for the presence of calves persistently infected with bovine pestivirus. PROCEDURE: All calves were routinely tested for antibody to bovine pestivirus and bovine pestivirus antigen using a serum neutralisation test and an antigen-capture ELISA, respectively. Pooled lymphocyte samples from calves were also monitored for bovine pestivirus by inoculation of sheep. Whole herd testing was carried out in eight herds, using a serum neutralisation test as a screen test followed by an antigen-capture ELISA of cattle with a serum neutralisation test titre of less than 32. RESULTS: Fourteen of the 1521 calves tested (0.9%), were detected as persistently infected and the incidence ranged from 0.0 to 3.0% per year over 6 years. Persistently infected calves were found in 13 of the 59 groups and originated from 7 of the 21 herds used. In whole herd testing on the properties of origin, cattle persistently infected with bovine pestivirus were detected in four of the eight herds tested. CONCLUSIONS: The proportion of calves persistently infected with bovine pestivirus is similar to that in other countries and indicates that bovine pestivirus could be a significant cause of economic loss in Australian cattle herds. In detecting calves persistently infected with bovine pestivirus, the combination of sheep inoculation, paired antigen-capture ELISA and serum neutralisation tests appeared to be highly sensitive and specific.

Animals↗

Photomodulation of oxidative metabolism and electron chain enzymes in rat liver mitochondria.

Low-level laser irradiation has been applied in a variety of laboratory studies and clinical trials for photobiostimulation over the last three decades. Considerable skepticism exists regarding the concept of photostimulation within the medical community. One of the major difficulties with photoirradiation research is that it lacks experimentally supportable mechanisms for the alleged photobiostimulatory effects. This study was undertaken to determine whether oxidative metabolism and electron chain enzymes in rat liver mitochondria can be modulated by photoirradiation. Oxygen consumption, phosphate potential, and energy charge of rat liver mitochondria were determined following photoirradiation. Activities of mitochondrial enzymes were analyzed to assess the specific enzymes that are directly involved with the photostimulatory process. An argon-dye laser at a wave-length of 660 nm and at a power density of 10 mW/cm2 was used as a photon source. Photoirradiation significantly increased oxygen consumption (0.6 J/cm2 and 1.2 J/cm2, P < 0.05), phosphate potential, and the energy charge (1.8 J/cm2 and 2.4 J/cm2, P < 0.05) of rat liver mitochondria and enhanced the activities of NADH: ubiquinone oxidoreductase, ubiquinol: ferricytochrome C oxidoreductase and ferrocytochrome C: oxygen oxidoreductase (0.6 J/cm2, 1.2 J/cm2, 2.4 J/cm2 and 4.8 J/cm2, P < 0.05). The activities of succinate ubiquinone oxidoreductase, ATPase, and lactate dehydrogenase were not affected by photoirradiation.

Adenosine Triphosphatases↗

Reproductive understanding, sexual functioning and testosterone levels in men with spina bifida.

PURPOSE: We assessed the sexual functioning and understanding in men with myelodysplasia. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Of the 378 patients with myelodysplasia followed at our multidisciplinary clinic 170 are adults, including 58 men older than 18 years. A total of 57 men was available for interview. A questionnaire was administered to determine patient educational level, sexual understanding, sexual function and marital status, and serum testosterone levels were measured. RESULTS: The majority of the patients learned about sexual reproduction from school classes with 48 (84%) having achieved a twelfth grade education or higher. A total of 41 patients (72%) accurately described the basic concepts of reproductive physiology. Penile erections were experienced by 41 men (72%) including 27 (66%) who ejaculated with erection. Three patients ejaculated without erection. Sexual intercourse was attempted by 20 men (35%). Of the 11 patients (19%) who attempted to father children 8 (14%) were successful. Twelve patients (21%) have been married, including 2 who are divorced. Serum testosterone levels in 44 patients were normally distributed. CONCLUSIONS: Sexual reproductive understanding, and erectile and ejaculatory function are present in many men with myelodysplasia. The level of the neurological lesion was not predictive of erectile or ejaculatory function but it appears that reproductive potential is favored by lower and less severe lesions. All but 1 of the 8 patients who fathered children had an L5 or sacral neurological level lesion, each was ambulatory and none had a ventriculoperitoneal shunt at the time of conception. These data may prove useful when counseling patients and their parents about eventual sexual performance.

Adolescent↗

Randomised comparative monotherapy trial of phenobarbitone, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or sodium valproate for newly diagnosed childhood epilepsy.

BACKGROUND: The medical treatment of childhood epilepsy is largely influenced by clinical trials in adult patients. We know of only one randomised comparative trial (of two drugs) in newly diagnosed childhood epilepsy. We have undertaken a long-term, prospective, randomised, unmasked, pragmatic trial of the comparative efficacy and toxicity of four standard antiepileptic drugs used as monotherapy in children with newly diagnosed epilepsy. METHODS: Between 1981 and 1987, 167 children aged 3-16 years, who had had at least two previously untreated tonic-clonic or partial seizures, with or without secondary generalisation, were randomly allocated treatment with phenobarbitone, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or sodium valproate. The protocol was designed to conform to standard clinical practice. Efficacy was assessed by time to first seizure after the start of treatment and time to achieving 1-year remission. FINDINGS: The overall outcome with all four drugs was good. 20% of children remained free of seizures and 73% had achieved 1-year remission by 3 years of follow-up. We found no significant differences between the drugs for either measure of efficacy at 1, 2, or 3 years of follow-up. The overall frequency of unacceptable side-effects necessitating withdrawal of the randomised drug was 9%. This total included six of the first ten children assigned phenobarbitone; no further children were allocated this drug. Of the other three drugs, phenytoin (9%) was more likely to be withdrawn than carbamazepine (4%) or sodium valproate (4%). INTERPRETATION Our data will inform choice of drug and outcome with four of the standard drugs available for newly diagnosed tonic-clonic or partial seizures with or without secondary generalisation in children.

Adolescent↗

Use of tilmicosin in a severe outbreak of respiratory disease in weaned beef calves.

Severe respiratory disease, associated with seroconversion to bovine respiratory syncitial virus (BRSV), caused the death of two cattle and necessitated antibiotic treatment of 70 calves (rectal temperature of 39.6 degrees C or greater) from a group of 96 (73%) during an 8-day period. Tilmicosin injection resulted in a reduction in median rectal temperature from 40.3 degrees C to 39.2 degrees C and 39.0 degrees C for the first and second days after treatment. The rectal temperature was 39.5 degrees C or lower in 72% (48 of 67) and 96% (64 of 67) of cattle 1 and 2 days after tilmicosin treatment, respectively. Ten cattle were re-treated with tilmicosin 6 to 16 days after the first treatment. Our study demonstrated that bovine respiratory syncytial virus infection could cause severe respiratory disease in a beef herd that had no previous history of BRSV-related disease. Secondary bacterial invasion after BRSV infection was controlled effectively by tilmicosin treatment but repeat antibiotic treatments were occasionally necessary due to bacterial re-infection of the respiratory tract.

Animals↗

Calcium intakes in individuals on diets for the management of cows' milk allergy: a case control study.

Three hundred and twenty-three individuals with self-reported food allergy were recruited by media advertisements. Questionnaire information was collected on all respondents. Chocolate (57%), milk (47%), wheat (36%) and food additives (35%) were the most frequently implicated foods. The most frequently reported symptoms were itching (43%), skin rash (43%) and tiredness (43%). Food avoidance was the most common form of food allergy diagnosis (33%) with only 8% of respondents reporting food challenge in food allergy diagnosis. Self-diagnosis was reported by 34% of respondents with 29% and 24% reporting diagnosis by a general practitioner or a homeopath, respectively. Twenty-four per cent of respondents 'always' avoided and a further 57% 'nearly always' avoided the implicated food(s). A group of 38 adults with self-reported 'milk allergy' was selected for further study. Dietary assessments, using the dietary history method, were carried out on this subgroup and on age-, sex- and occupation-matched controls. The results of the dietary assessments revealed that the 'milk allergy' group had significantly higher intakes of fibre, beta-carotene, vitamin C, vitamin E, iron and folic acid (P < 0.05) and significantly lower intakes of calcium (P < 0.002) in comparison to controls. Eighteen per cent of the group used milk alternatives. Thirty-four per cent of the 'milk allergy' group took calcium-containing supplements. Even after calcium supplementation, the mean calcium intake of those who completely avoided milk was unacceptably low (441 mg/d).

Adult↗

Complementary identification in schizophrenia.

Children with schizophrenia turn away from the outside world at an early age because they cannot decode the rhythmic patterns in their parents' voices. These children are unable to separate themselves from their parents as they grow up, and as a result, are unable to develop a sense of self. The schizophrenic child develops complementary behavior to counterbalance the parent's attitudes--that is, if a father acts in a dominant fashion 90% of the time, the child will be submissive in 90% of his/her interpersonal relationships. By working with separation techniques, the nurse therapist can help the client develop a more normalized self-view.

Humans↗

Characterization of extracellular phospholipase A2 (PLA2) activity in fluid and peritoneal cells from casein-treated rats.

Extracellular phospholipase A2 activity (PLA2) found in the fluid and cells of the peritoneal cavity of rats injected with casein is described. PLA2 activities from both the fluid and cells require Ca2+ and have pH optima of 7. Acid-extraction increased PLA2 activity in the polymorphonuclear leukocyte (PMN) homogenates 20-fold but not the PLA2 activity in the extracellular fluid. Acid extraction also increased the sensitivity of the PLA2 activities to standard inhibitors. Since the PLA2 activities described in this model have characteristics similar to other inflammatory PLA2s, including human synovial fluid PLA2, casein stimulation should prove useful for testing potential inhibitors.

Animals↗

Congenital spinal stenosis in beef calves in western Canada.

Nineteen calves with a clinical history of posterior weakness or ataxia were examined at necropsy. Dorsoventral narrowing of the vertebral canal and myelopathy were found in the thoracic and lumbar areas of the spinal cord; vertebral metaphyseal growth plates had focal areas of premature closure. Malformation of the cranial base and hydrocephalus were also observed. Shortening of long bones and malformation of long bone epiphyses were prominent findings and were associated with focal premature closure of metaphyseal growth plates. The cause of these lesions is unknown; possible causes, including a maternal deficiency of manganese, are discussed.

Animals↗

Hepatic copper concentrations in purebred and mixed-breed dogs.

Histomorphologic, histochemical, and atomic absorption analysis studies were performed on liver tissue from 623 clinically normal purebred and mixed-breed dogs to assess the range of hepatic copper concentrations, the histologic distribution of copper, and the histomorphologic changes associated with the various copper concentrations that were found. Atomic absorption analysis revealed a continuous numerical spectrum ranging from less than 100 parts per million on a dry weight basis (ppm dw) to more than 2,000. No decisive numerical criterion was found that could be used to separate normal from abnormal copper concentrations because of this continuous array. The threshold for histochemical demonstration of copper-containing granules using rhodanine or rubeanic acid staining was 400 ppm dw. At this concentration the copper-containing granules were located in the centrilobular hepatocytes (zone 3 of Rappaport). Copper-containing granules were found in the midzonal and periportal hepatocytes (zones 2 and 1 of Rappaport) in livers with 1,000 ppm dw and higher copper concentrations. The majority of the 623 livers were normal histomorphologically. Multifocal hepatitis characterized by mixed inflammatory cell accumulation and centrilobular distribution was found to be associated with copper concentrations in the range of 2,000 ppm dw or higher. An appropriate upper limit for normal hepatic copper concentration in the dog was not determined based on the present study.

Animals↗