[Aldosterone and cortisol-producing adrenal tumor].
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Publications and source records attributed to M Imagawa.
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The components of the vestibular ascending pathway that transmit otolith information to the thalamus were studied electrophysiologically in anesthetized cats. Thalamic-projecting vestibular neurons (confirmed antidromically) were recorded extracellularly in the various vestibular nuclei. Otolith inputs to these neurons were examined with selective stimulation of the utricular (UT) or the saccular (SAC) nerves. Vestibular nerve branches other than the tested nerve were transected. Of 40 UT-activated vestibulothalamic neurons, 40% (16/40) were activated by UT nerve stimulation with latencies ranging between 0.9-1.4 ms, suggesting they were second-order neurons from the UT nerve. UT-activated vestibulothalamic neurons were recorded in the medial vestibular nucleus (MVN; 24/40), the lateral vestibular nucleus (LVN; 9/40), the descending vestibular nucleus (DVN; 6/40), and the superior vestibular nucleus (SVN; 1/40). Most of the neurons (38/40) were antidromically activated by focal stimulation of the ventral part of the ipsilateral thalamus. Antidromic stimulation of the pontine area revealed that trajectories of the ascending axons (14 of 38 neurons) to the ipsilateral thalamus passed through the pontine reticular formation, ventral to the ascending tract of Deiters (ATD) and the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF). Only three SAC-activated vestibulothalamic neurons were encountered in the LVN. All these neurons were second-order neurons from the SAC nerve and were antidromically activated by stimulation of the contralateral thalamus, in marked contrast to the UT-activated vestibulothalamic neurons. Only three UT-activated and two SAC-activated neurons sent descending collaterals to the spinal cord.
We have previously identified the genes expressed early in the differentiation of mouse 3T3-L1 cells into adipocytes. Since these genes were isolated as small fragments, many were unknown. In this study, we have cloned two full-length cDNAs and identified them as p68 RNA helicase and mc3s5/mtCLIC. The expression of these genes was rapidly induced, and specific to the adipocyte differentiation. When the expression of p68 RNA helicase was inhibited using an inducible antisense system, the differentiation into adipocytes was partially blocked, and the expression levels of some marker genes decreased. These findings strongly indicate that the expression of the above two genes was closely related to the adipocyte differentiation, and p68 RNA helicase in particular is crucial to the differentiation.
The events at the earliest stage of adipocyte differentiation are yet to be fully elucidated. Previously, we cloned the genes that are induced at the beginning of the differentiation of mouse 3T3-L1 preadipocyte cells. We found that the gene expression of regulators of G protein signaling-2 (RGS2) rapidly increased after the addition of inducers and decreased at 3-12 h. The expression pattern of RGS2 mRNAs differed among growth-arrested and proliferating 3T3-L1 cells and NIH-3T3 cells, indicating a specificity for adipogenesis. Here we report that the ectopic expression of RGS2 using a retroviral system in mouse NIH-3T3 cells promotes adipogenesis only in the presence of BRL49653, which is a ligand for the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARgamma). These results strongly suggest that RGS2 play a crucial role in the program of adipocyte differentiation and may contribute to the function of PPARgamma.
The peroxisome-proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARgamma) is a member of the steroid/thyroid nuclear receptor superfamily of ligand-activated transcription factors. PPARgamma forms a heterodimer with the retinoid X receptor alpha (RXRalpha) and binds to a common consensus response element consisting of a direct repeat of two hexanucleotides spaced by one nucleotide (DR1 motif). However, other hexamer configurations for binding of PPARgamma have not been considered. By using PCR-mediated random site selection, the DNA sequence preferences for PPARgamma binding were examined. In this study, we have demonstrated that PPARgamma has dual DNA-binding specificity; binding to both the DR1 motif and a palindromic sequence with three bases as spacers (Pal3 motif). The consensus sequence selected by equimolar amounts of PPARgamma and RXRalpha was a perfect DR1 motif, whereas a relatively large population of Pal3 was observed when a 30-fold molar excess of PPARgamma over RXRalpha was used. Gel-shift analysis revealed that the PPARgamma homodimer could bind to Pal3 and that the affinity constant of the PPARgamma homodimer for Pal3 was nearly the same as that of the PPARgamma/RXRalpha heterodimer for DR1. The addition of RXRalpha decreased the binding affinity of PPARgamma for Pal3, indicating that the DNA-binding specificity of PPARgamma could be altered by heterodimer formation with RXRalpha.
We surveyed a total of 570 cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) samples from a variety of diseases, including Alzheimer's disease (AD; n = 236), non-AD-demented and nondemented diseases (n = 239), and normal controls (n = 95) to quantitate levels of tau protein phosphorylated at serine 199 (CSF/phospho-tau199) by a recently established sandwich ELISA. The CSF/phospho-tau199 levels in the AD group were significantly elevated compared to those in all the other non-AD groups. Receiver operating characteristics curves showed that the diagnostic sensitivity and specificity for the AD group vs all the other non-AD groups using the CSF/phospho-tau199 were 85.2% and 85.0%, respectively. Furthermore, there was a significant positive correlation between CSF/phospho-tau199 and CSF/total-tau levels in the AD group. Elevated CSF/phospho-tau199 in the AD group was noted irrespective of age, gender, dementia severity, and number of apolipoprotein E4 alleles. Thus, we suggest that CSF/phospho-tau199 may be a novel and logical biomarker in supporting antemortem diagnosis of AD.
We examined whether otolith-activated second- and third-order vestibular nucleus neurons received commissural inhibition from the contralateral otolithic macula oriented in the same geometric plane. For this purpose we performed intracellular recording in vestibular nucleus neurons after stimulation of the ipsi- and contralateral utricular and saccular nerves. More than half (41/72) of the utricular-activated second-order vestibular nucleus neurons received commissural inhibition from the contralateral utricular nerve. The remaining neurons (31/72) showed no visible response to contralateral utricular nerve stimulation. About half (17/36) of utricular-activated third-order neurons also received commissural inhibition from the contralateral utricular nerve. Approximately 10% (7/67) of saccular-activated second-order vestibular neurons received polysynaptic commissural inhibition, whereas 16% (11/67) received commissural facilitation. The majority (49/67) of saccular second-order vestibular neurons, and almost all (22/23) third-order neurons, showed no visible response to stimulation of the contralateral saccular nerve. The present findings suggest that many utricular-activated vestibular nucleus neurons receive commissural inhibition, which may provide a mechanism for increasing the sensitivity of vestibular neurons to horizontal linear acceleration and lateral tilt of the head. Commissural inhibition in the saccular system was less prominent than in the utricular system.
BACKGROUND: It has long been suspected that duodenogastric reflux plays a role in the pathogenesis of intestinal metaplasia (IM), although recent studies have demonstrated a close association between Helicobacter pylori infection and gastroduodenal diseases, including IM. The objective of this study was to investigate the relation among IM and duodenogastric reflux, H pylori infection, and smoking. METHODS: Subjects with "marked" characteristics of IM, all with extensive prepyloric distribution at endoscopy that was confirmed histologically, were studied as an IM group (27 men, 26 women; mean age, 64 years). A control group was comprised by subjects without characteristics of IM (29 men, 28 women; mean age, 63 years). Fasting pH, total bile acid concentration, and ammonia concentration were measured in the gastric juice of all participants. Histologic examination endoscopic biopsy specimens were evaluated histologically. H pylori infection was determined by serum antibody and urease testing, and by histology. Serum gastrin and pepsinogen concentrations, and gastric emptying time were measured. Dietary, drinking, and smoking habits were recorded. Comparisons were made between groups and analyzed statistically. RESULTS: The pH and total bile acid concentrations were significantly higher in the IM group than the control group (p < 0.01). No significant difference in H pylori infection was found between the IM and control group. Smoking was associated with IM (odds ratio [OR], 15.74; 95% CI, 3.96 to 62.50). CONCLUSIONS: A high pH and total bile acid concentration and smoking were associated with "marked" IM, suggesting that these factors may play a role in the development of IM.
The rat glutathione transferase P (GST-P) gene is strongly induced during chemical hepatocarcinogenesis, whereas mRNA of this gene is rarely expressed in normal rat liver. We previously identified a silencer region in the promoter of this gene. This silencer has several DNA binding sites and at least three proteins (Silencer factor A, -B, and -C (SF-A, SF-B, and SF-C)) bind to these sites. We previously cloned and characterized the Nuclear Factor 1 (NF1) family and the CCAAT/enhancer-binding protein (C/EBP) family as SF-A and SF-B, respectively. However, SF-C which binds to GST-P silencer 2 (GPS2) remains to be cloned. By screening using yeast one-hybrid system, several zinc finger proteins were identified as a candidate of SF-C. The gel-mobility shift analyses showed that BTEB2, EZF, LKLF, TFIIIA, TIEG1, and novel zinc finger protein MZFP bound to GPS2 with different affinities. Several proteins of these are known to be transcriptional activators or repressors, suggesting that zinc finger proteins bind to GPS2 and regulate GST-P expression in the rat liver.
PURPOSE: To examine the inhibitory effects of tranilast, ketotifen fumarate, and disodium cromoglycate which are used clinically as anti-allergic agents, on the growth of bovine lens epithelial cells (LE) in culture. METHODS: LE was grown in Dulbecco's modified Eagle's medium(DMEM) with 10% fetal calf serum and growth was measured with 3-[4,5-dimethylthiazole-2-yl]-2,5-diphenyltetrazolium bromide(MTT) and 5-bromo-2'deoxy-uridine(BrdU). Production of collagen, transforming growth factor-beta 1(TGF-beta 1), and basic-fibroblast growth factor(b-FGF) were measured with corresponding enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay(ELISA). Apoptotic cell death was detected by TdT-mediated dUTP-biotin nick end labelling method(TUNEL technique) and the DNA ladder method. RESULTS: Both ketotifen and tranilast inhibited the growth of LE, and half-inhibitory concentrations were 200 microM and 1,000 microM, respectively. Disodium cromoglycate did not inhibit LE proliferation significantly. Ketotifen and tranilast decreased the synthesis of collagen but had no obvious effect on TGF-beta 1 and b-FGF production. Apoptotic cell death was detected in LE treated with ketotifen or tranilast. CONCLUSION: Ketotifen and tranilast may be clinically useful for the prevention of aftercataract. Apoptotic cell death may be involved in the process.
Nuclear factor 1 (NF1) proteins are encoded by at least four genes (NF1-A, B, C, X). Although DNA-binding and the transcription regulation domains of these proteins are well characterized, the nuclear localization signals (NLSs) are still unknown in all NF1s. We have identified two NLSs in NF1-A, and both are required for full translocation to the nucleus, although one of them itself has a partial translocation ability. These two NLSs are conserved in all four NF1s. Interestingly, three isoforms of NF1-A (NF1-A1, A2, A4) have two NLSs and translocate completely to the nucleus. In contrast, NF1-A3 lacks the second NLS and partially stays in the cytoplasm. Since NF1s construct homodimer and heterodimer, these findings indicate the differential regulations of the NF1 translocation.
Transcription factor CCAAT/enhancer-binding protein delta (C/EBPdelta) is normally associated with acute-phase gene expression. However, it is expressed constitutively in primary osteoblast cultures where it increases insulin-like growth factor I synthesis in a cAMP-dependent way. Here we show that the 3' proximal region of the C/EBPdelta gene promoter contains a binding sequence for Runt domain factor Runx2, which is essential for osteogenesis. This region of the C/EBPdelta promoter directed high reporter gene expression in osteoblasts, and specifically bound Runx2 in osteoblast-derived nuclear extract. C/EBPdelta gene promoter activity was reduced by mutating the Runx binding sequence or by co-transfecting with Runx2 antisense expression plasmid, and was enhanced by overexpression of Runx-2. Exposure to prostaglandin E(2) increased Runx-dependent gene transactivation independently of Runx2 binding to DNA. Runx2 bound directly to the carboxyl-terminal region of C/EBPdelta itself, and its ability to drive C/EBPdelta expression was suppressed when C/EBPdelta or its carboxyl-terminal fragment was increased by overexpression. Consistent effects also occurred on C/EBPdelta-dependent increases in gene expression driven by synthetic or insulin-like growth factor I gene promoter fragments. These interactions between Runx2 and C/EBPdelta, and their activation by prostaglandin E(2), provide new evidence for their importance during skeletal remodeling, inflammatory bone disease, or fracture repair.
Using chloramphenicol acetyltransferase assays we showed that epidermal growth factor (EGF), transforming growth factor alpha (TGF alpha), and 3,3',4,4',5-pentachlorobiphenyl (PenCB) induce class Pi glutathione S-transferase (GSTP1) in primary cultured rat liver parenchymal cells. GSTP1 enhancer I (GPEI), which is required for the stimulation of GSTP1 expression by PenCB, also mediates EGF and TGF alpha stimulation of GSTP1 gene expression. However, hepatocyte growth factor and insulin did not stimulate GPEI-mediated gene expression. On the other hand, the antioxidant reagents butylhydroxyanisole and t-butylhydroquinone, stimulated GPEI-mediated gene expression, but the level of GSTP1 mRNA was not elevated. Our observations suggest that EGF and TGF alpha induce GSTP1 by the same signal transduction pathway as PenCB. Since the sequence of GPEI is similar to that of the antioxidant responsive element (ARE), some factors which bind to ARE might play a role in GPEI-mediated gene expression.
Mitochondrial aldehyde dehydrogenase 2 (ALDH2) deficiency is caused by a mutant allele in the Mongoloids. To examine whether genetic constitutions affecting aldehyde metabolism influence the risk for late-onset Alzheimer's disease (LOAD), we performed a case-control study in the Japanese population on the deficiency in ALDH2 caused by the dominant-negative mutant allele of the ALDH2 gene (ALDH2*2). In a comparison of 447 patients with sex, age, and region matched nondemented controls, the genotype frequency carrying the ALDH2*2 allele was significantly higher in the patients than in the controls (48.1% vs 37.4%, P = 0.001). Logistic regression analysis indicates that carriage of the ALDH2*2 allele is an independent risk for LOAD of the epsilon4 allele of the apolipoprotein E gene (APOE-epsilon4) (P = 0.002). Moreover, the odds ratio for LOAD in carriers of the ALDH2*2 allele was almost twice that in noncarriers, irrespective of status with regard to the APOE-epsilon4 allele. Among patients homozygous for the APOE-epsilon4 allele, age at onset of LOAD was significantly lower in those with than without the ALDH2*2 allele. In addition, dosage of the ALDH2*2 allele significantly affected age at onset of patients homozygous for the APOE-epsilon4 allele. These results indicate that the ALDH2 deficiency is a risk for LOAD, synergistically acting with the APOE-epsilon4 allele.
alpha(2u)-Globulin is well known to be a rat protein encoded by a highly homologous multigene family with more than twenty members. We report here the cloning and identification of major alpha(2u)-globulin mRNA species expressed in various tissues. Initially, eight individual clones (PGCL1-8) were obtained from a male preputial gland cDNA library. Data base analysis with BLAST demonstrated six mRNAs to be novel, all clones being characterized by highly conserved sequence motifs as lipocalins. All cDNAs contained an open reading frame of 543 nucleotides and encode 181 amino acid proteins showing 92.5-98.7% and 87.3-98.3% nucleic and amino acid identity, respectively. Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis (DGGE) with sequence analysis showed that PGCL4 is a major member in the female mammary gland, and in the submaxillary and lachrymal glands of both sexes, while the counterpart in male liver and the coagulate glands was found to be PGCL1. Numbers of cDNA species including PGCL1 and PGCL4 were found in preputial glands, no sex-related difference being observed. These results directly demonstrate complex tissue- and sex-specific expression of alpha(2u)-globulins in terms of mRNA species, providing useful information for understanding regulation of the alpha(2u)-globulin multigene family.
Exposure of cells to a wide variety of chemoprotective compounds confers resistance to a broad set of carcinogens. For a subset of the chemoprotective compounds, protection is generated by an increase in the abundance of protective enzymes, such as glutathione S-transferases (GSTs). In the present study, we developed a cell culture system that potently responds to phenolic antioxidants and found that antitumor prostaglandins (PGs) are potential inducers of GSTs. We screened primary hepatocytes and multiple cell lines for inducing GST activity upon incubation with the phenolic antioxidant (tert-butylhydroquinone) and found that rat liver epithelial RL34 cells most potently responded. Based on an extensive screening of diverse chemical agents on the induction of GST activity in RL34 cells, the J2 series of PGs, 15-deoxy-Delta(12,14)-prostaglandin J2 (15-deoxy-Delta(12,14)-PGJ2) in particular, were found to be potential inducers of GST. Enhanced gene expression of Class pi GST isozyme (GSTP1) by 15-deoxy-Delta(12,14)-PGJ2 was evident as a drastic elevation of the mRNA level. Hence, we examined the molecular mechanism underlying the 15-deoxy-Delta(12, 14)-PGJ2-induced GSTP1 gene expression. From functional analysis of various deletion mutant genes, we found that the 15-deoxy-Delta(12, 14)-PGJ2 reponse element was localized in a region containing a GSTP1 enhancer I (GPEI) that consists of two imperfect phorbol 12-O-tetradecanoylphorbol-13-acetate response elements. When the GPEI was combined with the minimum GSTP1 promoter, the element indeed showed an enhancer activity in response to 15-deoxy-Delta(12, 14)-PGJ2. Point mutations of either of the two imperfect 12-O-tetradecanoylphorbol-13-acetate response elements in GPEI completely abolished the enhancer activity. Gel mobility shift assays demonstrated that 15-deoxy-Delta(12,14)-PGJ2 specifically stimulated the binding of nuclear proteins including the transcription factor c-Jun, but not Nrf2, to GPEI. These results suggest that 15-deoxy-Delta(12,14)-PGJ2 induces the expression of the rat GSTP1 gene through binding of proteins, including c-Jun, to a specific GPEI.
Here we report the molecular mechanism underlying the induction of glutathione S-transferase (GST) in rat liver epithelial RL34 cells treated with a cancer chemopreventive isothiocyanate compound, benzylisothiocyanate (BITC). BITC was found to significantly induce GST activity in RL34 cells. Northern and Western blot analyses demonstrated that BITC specifically enhanced the production of the class pi GST isozyme (GSTP1). Our studies demonstrated for the first time that the addition of BITC to the cells resulted in an immediate increase in the reactive oxygen intermediates (ROIs) detected by a fluorescence probe, 2',7'-dichlorofluorescin diacetate. The level of the ROIs in the cells treated with BITC (10 microM) was approximately 50-fold higher than those in the control cells. Furthermore, glutathione depletion by diethyl maleate significantly enhanced BITC-induced ROI production and accelerated the BITC-induced elevation of the GST activity, whereas pretreatment of the cells with glutathione inhibited both the ROI production and GST induction. The structure-activity relationship of the isothiocyanates also indicated that the ROI-producing activities closely correlated with their GST-inducing potencies. Moreover, the GSTP1 enhancer I-containing region was found to be essential for induction of the GSTP1 gene by intracellular ROI inducers such as BITC and diethyl maleate. These data suggest the involvement of the redox regulation on the induction of GSTP1 by BITC.
The otolith system contributes to the vestibulo-ocular reflexes (VOR) when the head moves linearly in the horizontal plane or tilts relative to gravity. The saccules are thought to detect predominantly accelerations along the gravity vector. Otolith-induced vertical eye movements following vertical linear accelerations are attributed to the saccules. However, information on the neural circuits of the sacculo-ocular system is limited, and the effects of saccular inputs on extraocular motoneurons remain unclear. In the present study, synaptic responses to saccular-nerve stimulation were recorded intracellularly from identified motoneurons of all twelve extraocular muscles. Experiments were successfully performed in eleven cats. Individual motoneurons of the twelve extraocular muscles--the bilateral superior recti (SR), inferior recti (IR), superior obliques (SO), inferior obliques (IO), lateral recti (LR), and medial recti (MR) were identified antidromically following bipolar stimulation of their respective nerves. The saccular nerve was selectively stimulated by a pair of tungsten electrodes after removing the utricular nerve and the ampullary nerves of the semicircular canals. Stimulus intensities were determined from the stimulus-response curves of vestibular N1 field potentials in order to avoid current spread. Intracellular recordings were performed from 129 extraocular motoneurons. The majority of the neurons showed no response to saccular-nerve stimulation. In 17 (30%) of 56 extraocular motoneurons related to vertical eye movements (bilateral SR and IR), depolarizing and/or hyperpolarizing postsynaptic potentials (PSPs) were observed in response to saccular-nerve stimulation. The latencies of PSPs ranged from 2.3 to 8.9 ms, indicating that the extraocular motoneurons received neither monosynaptic nor disynaptic inputs from saccular afferents. The majority of the latencies of the depolarization, including depolarization-hyperpolarization, were in the range of 2.3-3.3 ms. Latencies of hyperpolarizations were typically longer than those of depolarizations. Only one contralateral SO motoneuron of 43 recorded oblique extraocular motoneurons (bilateral SO and IO) showed a depolarization-hyperpolarization in response to saccular-nerve stimulation at a latency of 2.5 ms. None of 30 recorded horizontal extraocular motoneurons (bilateral LR and MR) responded to stimulation of the saccular nerve. The neural linkage in the sacculo-ocular system is relatively weak in comparison to the utriculo-ocular and sacculo-collic systems, suggesting that the role of the sacculo-ocular system in stabilizing eye position may be reduced when compared with utriculo-ocular and semi-circular canal-ocular reflexes.