Factors influencing graft survival in living-related donor kidney transplantation at a single center.
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Biomedical subjects
Publications and source records attributed to M Hussain.
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Thirteen interferon (IFN)-alpha functional genes have been reported. Among these, a number of genes have allelic members (variants). In the case of IFN-alpha17, five variants, IFN-alpha17a, IFN-alpha17b, IFN-alpha17c, IFN-alpha17d, and IFN-alphaT, are known. The variants differ from each other by base changes in the coding region, leading to differences in amino acid sequences. We have developed oligonucleotide primers for amplification of IFN-alpha17 gene(s) using polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Genomic DNA, obtained from over 28,000 normal healthy individuals and from four cell lines, were used as templates in PCR to amplify the IFN-alpha17 gene sequences. The resulting PCR products were analyzed by restriction endonuclease digestion and DNA sequencing to identify the presence of variant sequences. The results show that a new variant of IFN-alpha17 is abundantly present (approximately 70%) along with another variant, possibly IFN-alpha17c (approximately 30%), in the genomic DNA of the population examined. This new variant, the protein product of which is identical to IFN-alpha17b, differs from the gene for IFN-alpha17b by a point mutation. We have named it IFN-alpha17b', which is the only variant found in U-937, KG-1, and EB-3 cell lines. Namalwa cells have IFN-alpha17b' and, possibly, IFN-alpha17c in equal proportions.
Some believe endocervical glandular atypia (EGA), purportedly composed of cells that are less atypical than cells of adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS), is a preneoplastic precursor of AIS. We examined 246 neoplastic and nonneoplastic cervical cone biopsy and hysterectomy specimens from 221 patients for lesions composed of glandular cells with less atypia than AIS to define and characterize their association with other glandular processes. To avoid the circular argument of high-grade EGA (dysplasia) vs AIS, we set the minimum degree of AIS cells as the degree of atypia of the cells constituting a moderately differentiated invasive adenocarcinoma. Only 4 endocervical glandular lesions with mild atypia were found, 3 in patients with AIS or invasive endocervical-primary adenocarcinoma and 1 in a patient with invasive endometrial-primary, adenocarcinoma with endocervical extension. There were no lesions with high-grade atypia, nor was there a morphologic spectrum of cells with less atypia than AIS. Of the specimens, 14% had benign endocervical cell changes. The percentage of specimens in each group with benign endocervical cell changes was approximately equal. Although our study is small and retrospective, it suggests that no morphologic evidence exists to support the existence of a spectrum of endocervical glandular changes that culminates in AIS.
The effect of Cs+ on the function of the cardiac sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) has been investigated in skinned cardiac myocytes. Isolated rat ventricular myocytes were permeabilized using saponin and then perfused with a solution containing 150 nmol/l Ca2+ and 10 micromol/l fura 2. Fura 2 fluorescence from the skinned cell was monitored to assess SR Ca2+ release. The frequency of spontaneous Ca2+ release from the SR decreased when K+ in the bathing solution was completely replaced with Cs+. Cs+ had little effect on the amplitude of spontaneous release but prolonged both the rise time and decay time. The SR Ca2+ content, assessed by application of caffeine, was reduced in the Cs+ solution. Cyclopiazonic acid produced effects similar to those of Cs+. Extracellular Cs+ (20 mmol/l) increased the amplitude of the Ca2+ transient and the SR Ca2+ content in intact field-stimulated cells but had little effect on the Ca2+ transient when the amplitude and duration of depolarization were kept constant using voltage clamp. These data suggest that Cs+ slows Ca2+ movement across the SR membrane, possibly by blocking the SR K+ channel, but has additional effects in intact cells that overcome its inhibitory effects on the SR.
PURPOSE: Both paclitaxel and carboplatin have single-agent activity against carcinoma of the urothelium. We evaluated the combination of paclitaxel and carboplatin in the treatment of advanced cancers of the urothelium. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Patients with cancers of the urothelium who had no prior chemotherapy (prior adjuvant chemotherapy > 6 months allowed) were eligible for treatment. Eligibility requirements were performance status of 2 or less, creatinine level less than 2.0 mg/dL, granulocyte count (AGC) 1,500/microL or greater, platelet count 100,000/microL or greater, and total bilirubin level less than 1.5 mg/dL. Paclitaxel 200 mg/m2 followed by carboplatin (area under the curve [AUC] 5, Calvert formula) were administered every 21 days. Patients were evaluated for toxicity weekly and assessed for response every 6 weeks. RESULTS: Thirty-six patients were entered onto the study and 35 patients were assessable for response. A total of 184 cycles were administered (median, six cycles per patient). Nine patients required one dose reduction, and seven patients required two dose reductions for a nadir AGC less than 500/microL, with only one episode of febrile neutropenia and sepsis. Myalgias and arthralgias of grades 1 to 2 occurred in 16 patients and usually lasted 2 to 3 days after treatment. There were no treatment delays because of toxicity. There were 18 responses; seven complete responses (CRs) and 11 partial responses (PRs) (response rate 51.5%; 95% confidence interval, 35 to 68). Median response durations for CR and PR were 6 and 4 months, respectively. Overall median survival was 9.5 months. CONCLUSION: The combination of paclitaxel and carboplatin is an active and well-tolerated regimen for the treatment of advanced urothelial carcinoma. Because of the modest toxicity of this combination, paclitaxel and carboplatin should be considered for addition to other agents with activity in urothelial carcinomas.
A patient previously irradiated for epiglottic cancer developed an upper esophageal stricture that on biopsy proved to be a moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. Patients receiving prior radiotherapy for a head and neck cancer are at increased risk of developing a second esophageal cancer and must be followed closely.
1. The effect of beta-adrenergic stimulation on the relationship between the intracellular Ca2+ transient and the amplitude of the L-type Ca2+ current (ICa) has been investigated in ventricular myocytes isolated from rat hearts. Intracellular [Ca2+] was monitored using fura-2 during field stimulation and while membrane potential was controlled using voltage clamp techniques. 2. The increase in the amplitude, and the rate of decline, of the Ca2+ transient produced by isoprenaline (1.0 mumol l-1) was not significantly different in myocytes generating action potentials and in those voltage clamped with pulses of constant duration and amplitude. 3. Under control conditions, the current-voltage (I-V) relationship for ICa was bell shaped. The amplitude of the Ca2+ transient also showed a bell-shaped voltage dependence. In the presence of isoprenaline, the amplitude of both ICa and the Ca2+ transient was greater at all test potentials and the I-V relationship maintained its bell-shaped voltage dependence. However, the size of the Ca2+ transient was no longer graded with changes in the amplitude of ICa: a small ICa could now elicit a maximal Ca2+ transient. 4. Rapid application of caffeine (10 mmol l-1) was used to elicit Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). Isoprenaline increased the integral of the subsequent rise in cytoplasmic [Ca2+] to 175 +/- 13% of control. 5. Abbreviation of conditioning pulse duration in the presence of isoprenaline was used to reduce the amplitude of the Ca2+ transient to control levels. Under these conditions, the amplitude of the Ca2+ transient was again graded with the amplitude of ICa in the same way as under control conditions. 6. Nifedipine (2 mumol l-1) was also used to decrease Ca2+ transient amplitude in the presence of isoprenaline. In the presence of isoprenaline and nifedipine, the amplitude of the Ca2+ transient again showed a bell-shaped voltage dependence. 7. The SR Ca(2+)-ATPase inhibitor thapsigargin (2.5 mumol l-1) reduced the effect of isoprenaline on the amplitude of the Ca2+ transient. In the presence of thapsigargin, the size of the Ca2+ transient increased as ICa increased in response to isoprenaline. 8. These data suggest that the increase in the amplitude of the Ca2+ transient produced by beta-adrenergic stimulation in cardiac muscle is due to an increase in the gain of the SR Ca2+ release process, due principally to an increase in the Ca2+ content of the SR.
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Both the PC-3 and the TSU-PR1 prostate tumor models were found to be satisfactory for chemotherapeutic investigations in ICR-SCID mice. The 30 to 60 mg fragments implanted took in all mice (as judged by 100% takes in the controls of all experiments as well as the passage mice). The tumor volume doubling time was 4.0 days for PC-3 and 2.5 days for TSU-PR1. Nine agents were evaluated IV against early stage subcutaneous PC-3 tumors, with Nano-piposulfan being the only agent highly active (4.9 log kill). Three other agents were moderately active: Taxol (1.5 log kill), Cryptophycin-8 (1.6 log kill), Vinblastine (1.0 log kill). Five agents were inactive: VP-16, Adriamycin, CisDDPt, 5-FUra, and Cyclophosphamide. Ten agents were evaluated IV against early stage subcutaneous TSU-PR1 tumors. Three agents were highly active, producing > 6 log kill and cures: Taxol (5/5 cures), Cryptophycin-8 (5/5 cures), Vinblastine (2/4 cures). Two other agents were moderately active: Nano-piposulfan (1.2 log kill), and Cyclophosphamide (1.1 log kill). Five agents were inactive: VP-16, Adriamycin, CisDDPt, 5-FUra, and BCNU. In part, activity was determined by the ability of the SCID mice to tolerate meaningful dosages of the agents. Agents producing granulocyte toxicity (e.g., Adriamycin) were poorly tolerated and appeared less active than expected. Vinblastine, producing little or no granulocyte toxicity was very well tolerated and appeared to be more active than expected.
Biofilm formation on a polymer surface which involves initial attachment and accumulation in multilayered cell clusters (intercellular adhesion) is proposed to be the major pathogenicity factor in Staphylococcus epidermidis foreign-body-associated infections. We have characterized two distinct classes of biofilm-negative Tn917 mutants in S. epidermidis affected in initial attachment (class A) or intercellular adhesion (class B). mut1 (class A mutant) lacks five surface-associated proteins with molecular masses of 120, 60, 52, 45 and 38 kDa and could be complemented by transformation with a 16.4 kb wild-type DNA fragment. The complemented mutant was able to attach to a polystyrene surface, to form a biofilm, and produced all of the proteins missing from mut1. Subcloning experiments revealed that the 60 kDa protein is sufficient for initial attachment. Immunofluorescence microscopy using an antiserum raised against the 60 kDa protein showed that this protein is located at the cell surface. DNA-sequence analysis of the complementing region revealed a single open reading frame which consists of 4005 nucleotides and encodes a deduced protein of 1335 amino acids with a predicted molecular mass of 148kDa. The amino acid sequence exhibits a high similarity (61% identical amino acids) to the atl gene product of Staphylococcus aureus, which represents the major autolysin; therefore the open reading frame was designated atlE. By analogy with the S. aureus autolysin, AtlE is composed of two bacteriolytically active domains, a 60 kDa amidase and a 52 kDa glucosaminidase domain, generated by proteolytic processing. The 120 kDa protein missing from mut1 presumably represents the unprocessed amidase and glucosaminidase domain after proteolytic cleavage of the signal- and propeptide. The 45 and 38kDa proteins are probably the degradation products of the 60 and 52 kDa proteins, respectively. Additionally, AtlE was found to exhibit vitronectin-binding activity, indicating that AtlE plays a role in binding of the cells not only to a naked polystyrene surface during early stages of adherence, but also to plasma protein-coated polymer surfaces during later stages of adherence. Our findings provide evidence for a new function of an autolysin (AtlE) in mediating the attachment of bacterial cells to a polymer surface, representing the prerequisite for biofilm formation.
Alpha interferons (IFN-alpha) are a class of cytokines with various activities that are used as therapeutic agents for treatment of cancer and viral and immune disorder diseases. At least 13 IFN-alpha genes and 1 IFN-alpha pseudogene have been identified, which are clustered on human chromosome 9. Among the known IFN-alpha species, a number of allelic variants have been reported. Two variants of IFN-alpha4 (IFN-alpha4a and IFN-alpha4b) are known, which differ from each other by changes in their coding regions at nucleotide positions 220 and 410 and can be distinguished by selective restriction enzyme analysis. We have developed oligonucleotide primers for specific amplification of IFN-alpha4 gene fragments using the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Genomic DNA obtained from over 28,000 normal healthy individuals and six human cell lines were used in this study. The resulting PCR products were analyzed by restriction endonuclease digestion and DNA sequencing to identify the presence of variant sequences. The results show that the DNA sequences for both variants of IFN-alpha4 are found in the population in nearly equal proportion. Individuals with either homozygous (e.g., alpha4a/alpha4a or alpha4b/alpha4b) or heterozygous (i.e., alpha4a/alpha4b) IFN-alpha4 genes were detected. Among the cell lines, KG-1, EB-3, and HTB-10 cells contain the genes for IFN-alpha4a only, whereas U-937, Namalwa, and Daudi cells contain the genes for both IFN-alpha4a and IFN-alpha4b.
Two distinct pathogenic mechanisms, adhesion to polymer surfaces and subsequent accumulation of sessile bacterial cells, are considered important pathogenic steps in foreign body infections caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis. By using mitomycin mutagenesis, we have recently generated a mutant, strain M7, from S. epidermidis RP62A which is unaffected in adhesion but deficient in accumulation on glass or polystyrene surfaces and lacks a 115-kDa extracellular protein (designated the 140-kDa antigen; F. Schumacher-Perdreau, C. Heilmann, G. Peters, F. Götz, and G. Pulverer, FEMS Microbiol. Lett. 117:71-78, 1994). To evaluate the role of this protein in accumulation, we harvested extracellular proteins from S. epidermidis RP62A grown on dialysis membranes placed over chemically defined medium, purified the protein by using ion-exchange chromatography, determined its N-terminal amino acid sequence, and raised antiserum in rabbits. The antibody recognized only a single band in a Western immunoblot of the crude extracellular extract. With the microtiter biofilm test, antiserum at a dilution of < or =1:1,000 blocked accumulation of RP62A up to 98% whereas preimmune serum did not. The 140-kDa antigen was found only in extracellular products from bacteria grown under sessile conditions. Of 58 coagulase-negative clinical isolates, 32 strains were 140-kDa antigen positive and produced significantly larger amounts of biofilm than the 26 strains that were 140-kDa antigen negative. The 140-kDa protein appears to be biochemically and functionally unrelated to any previously described factors associated with biofilm formation. Thus, the 140-kDa antigen, referred to as accumulation-associated protein, may be a factor essential in S. epidermidis accumulation and, due to its immunogenicity, may allow the development of novel immunotherapeutic strategies for prevention of foreign body infection.
This paper presents a hybrid-unsupervised and supervised-classifier for land use classification of remote sensing images. The entire satellite image is quantized by an unsupervised Neural Gas process and the resulting codebook is labeled by a supervised majority voting process using the ground truth. The performance of the classifier is similar to that of Maximum Likelihood and is only a little worse than Multilayer Perceptions while training and classifying requires no expert knowledge after collecting the ground truth. The hybrid classifier is much better suited to classifications with complex non-normally distributed classes than Maximum Likelihood. The main advantage of the Neural Gas classifier, however, is that it requires much less user interaction than other classifiers, especially Maximum Likelihood.