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Biomedical subjects

M Adachi

Publications and source records attributed to M Adachi.

At least 541 records · Page 30Linked to original sources
PubMed1991

Platelet factor 4 mRNA expression in cells from a patient with megakaryoblastic crisis of chronic myelogenous leukemia.

A 61-year-old man with Philadelphia chromosome-positive chronic myelogenous leukemia developed megakaryoblastic leukemia. In the blast phase, his blast cells showed undifferentiated megakaryoblastic characteristics with no alpha-granules or demarcation membranes but with detectable platelet peroxidase (PPO) activity and surface glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa. The patient has remained reasonably well for at least 12 months after blastic crisis, and 6-mercaptopurine alone has been effective in controlling leukocytosis and megakaryoblast proliferation. The expression of mRNA for platelet-specific proteins, such as GPIIb and platelet factor 4 (PF4), was studied in the patient's blast cells by the Northern blot analysis. Both GPIIb and PF4 mRNA were detected in the blast cells. Cytoplasmic maturation occurs later than the synthesis of the surface GP during megakaryocyte maturation. Therefore, PF4 mRNA expression should be a marker of mature megakaryoblasts. The PF4 mRNA expression in megakaryoblastic leukemia may indicate that a patient will have long survival and a good response to chemotherapy.

Antibodies, Monoclonal↗
PubMed1991

New assay to detect shedding antigen with use of anti-idiotypic monoclonal antibodies.

Anti-idiotypic (Anti-Id) monoclonal antibodies (MoAbs) against anti-carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) monoclonal antibody 5B3 (IgG1) were prepared and characterized. Five anti-Id MoAbs recognized the private idiotype of MoAb 5B3. Idiotype mapping suggested that MoAb 5B3 had at least three distinct idiotopes at its antigen combining site. Utilizing the inhibition of idiotype-anti-idiotype interaction with use of anti-Id MoAb T4-305 or T4-212, an immunoassay to detect shedding CEA was established. The results of this inhibition assay correlated with those of double determinant immunoassay and inhibition percentages linearly increased in a CEA concentration-dependent manner. Since it requires only one epitope of a given antigen molecule, this assay could be widely used for detection of shedding antigens, including tumor-associated antigens.

Animals↗
PubMed1991

Clinicopathologic features of the flat adenoma.

One hundred twenty-eight small flat adenomas (SFAs) were collected from 101 patients, and the clinicopathologic features were investigated. There were 91 adenomas with mild atypia, 20 with moderate atypia, and 17 with severe atypia. SFAs were found more often in males than in females, with a ratio of 3.4:1, and the malignancy rate in females (31.8 percent) was higher than in males (9.3 percent). About 38 percent of the patients had a history of colorectal carcinoma, and 65 percent had a history of colorectal neoplasms. Of 37 patients whose family history was traced, 21 had cancer families. SFAs were prone to be found in patients with a history of colorectal neoplasms and a cancer family. Malignancy rate increased with increasing size. The overall malignancy rate was 13.3 percent, which was considerably higher than that of ordinary small polypoid adenomas (2.8 percent). SFAs were situated more proximally (30.9 percent) than ordinary adenomas; however, there was no relationship between site and malignancy. All the lesions showed tubular adenomas, and there was no villous feature. A central depression was noted in 20 lesions, more frequently in adenomas with higher atypia. All but one adenoma with severe atypia showed a component of lower atypia, supporting the adenoma-carcinoma sequence.

Adenoma↗
PubMed1991

Adenoma-carcinoma sequence of the large bowel.

Fifty-two surgically removed large bowel specimens and 3 colonoscopically removed polyps with mucosal carcinomas were studied. Among 36 frank colorectal carcinomas, six (17%) had a focus of adenomatous remnant. The average size of carcinomas without adenomatous remnant was 56.0 mm and of those with adenomatous remnant was 44.3 mm. Four (67%) of 6 submucosal carcinomas and all of 4 mucosal carcinomas showed an adenomatous remnant. The average size of submucosal carcinomas was 17.7 mm and that of mucosal carcinomas was 16.3 mm. The smaller and less advanced the carcinoma, the more likely it was to show an adenomatous remnant, suggesting that carcinomas arise in adenomas and destroy surviving benign tumour as they grow. Coexisting adenomas were seen in 19 of 46 neoplasm-bearing patients (41%) and 1 of 9 patients (11%) without neoplasms. Average sizes of adenomas with moderate and mild atypia were 13.0 mm and 8.2 mm respectively, which were smaller than the sizes of submucosal and mucosal carcinomas. Although the numbers were small, these findings support the concept of adenoma-carcinoma sequence. Twenty-one flat elevations were collected during the study. Ten were neoplasm (9 adenomas and an early carcinoma), ten were metaplastic polyps and one was a histologically normal mucosal protrusion. The atypism of 10 flat adenomas increased with increasing size, as with ordinary adenomas. As 10 of 55 adenomas (18.2%) were flat adenomas, which are difficult to detect during routine colonoscopic examination, colonoscopists should make every effort to discover flat adenomas, which seem to play an important role in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence.

Adenoma↗
PubMed1991

Successful repair of huge bladder diverticulum with a transurethral fulguration. Report of a case.

We present a 68-year-old man with a huge bladder diverticulum associated with benign prostate hypertrophy treated with transurethral fulguration of the diverticular mucosa in combination with transurethral resection of the prostate. The procedure was well tolerated by the patient and unfavorable symptoms faded after this procedure. Follow-up cystogram demonstrated remarkable reduction of the diverticulum.

Aged↗
PubMed1991

Intracavernous injection of prostaglandin E1: the application to cavernosography and penile blood flow measurement for the diagnosis of venogenic impotence.

We injected 20 micrograms of prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) intracavernously in 32 patients with impotence, we then examined penile blood flow using a Xe-133 washout technique. In addition, we also performed a cavernosography. After PGE1 injection, 18 patients (56%) showed complete erection, 10 (31%) tumescence, and 4 (13%) no response. Fourteen patients who presented either an inadequate or no response to PGE1 injection were suspected to have vasculogenic impotence. Cavernosography of patients who showed good response after PGE1 injection demonstrated no obvious venous leakage. In this group penile blood flow decreased after full erection. However, 7 patients (50%) suspected to have vascular problems showed venous leakage. Subsequently, these 7 patients appeared to be cases of venous incompetence. The penile blood flow of these 7 patients before or after PGE1 injection was not statistically different from that of other groups. Based on these findings, cavernosography after PGE1 injection appears to be useful for differentiating the venous factor of impotence.

Adult↗
PubMed1991

Transurethral treatment of bladder diverticula.

We performed transurethral fulguration of the diverticular mucosa and incision of the diverticular neck in combination with transurethral prostatectomy or bladder neck resection to treat all aspects of diverticula in 9 patients. Eight cases with bladder outlet obstruction, involving 2 cases of large diverticula, have been successfully treated. A case with neurogenic bladder has failed. We found the transurethral procedure to be equally effective as open operation.

Aged↗
PubMed1991

Body surface distribution of abnormally low QRST areas in patients with left ventricular hypertrophy. An index of repolarization abnormalities.

BACKGROUND: QRST isointegral maps (I-maps) have been useful in detecting repolarization abnormalities. We investigated the body surface distribution of abnormally low QRST areas in patients with left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) and the relation of the abnormalities in I-map to the severity of LVH as assessed by echocardiography. METHODS AND RESULTS: QRST area departure maps were constructed from electrocardiographic (ECG) data recorded in patients with LVH and precordial negative T waves resulting from aortic stenosis (AS) (10 patients), aortic regurgitation (AR) (12 patients), or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) with asymmetric septal hypertrophy (22 patients). Fifty normal subjects served as controls. The I-map was constructed from 87 body surface electrocardiograms recorded simultaneously at a sampling interval of 1 msec. The area where the QRST area was smaller than normal limits (mean -2 SD) was designated the "-2 SD area." The echocardiographic left ventricular (LV) mass was calculated by Devereux's method. Patients with large LV masses due to AS or AR had 2 SD areas located over the left anterior chest or the midanterior chest, respectively. The 2 SD area was located over the left shoulder and left anterior chest and had a lingual shape in patients with HCM. The sum of QRST area values less than the normal range (sigma QRST) was significantly correlated with LV mass in patients with AS or AR (r = 0.83 and r = 0.69, p less than 0.01 and p less than 0.05). However, there was no significant correlation between sigma QRST and the severity of LVH in patients with HCM. sigma QRST divided by the number of electrodes in the 2 SD area was significantly greater in patients with HCM than in those with AS or AR. CONCLUSIONS: These findings suggest that abnormalities in patients with HCM are manifest even in mild LVH and that there is a greater disparity of repolarization in hypertrophied left ventricles due to HCM than in LVH due to aortic valve disease. QRST isointegral departure maps may provide ECG evidence of LV mass of patients with AS or AR and of susceptibility to malignant arrhythmias in patients with HCM.

Aortic Valve Insufficiency↗
PubMed1991

[Changes of procoagulant and fibrinolytic activities in the alveoli of rats exposed to ozone].

The purpose of this study was to evaluate the role of ozone, a reactive product of environmental photochemical oxidation, in the development of pulmonary fibrosis. Male Wistar rats were exposed continuously to 0.5 ppm ozone for 1,4,7 and 14 days, and alveolar macrophages and lavage fluid obtained by bronchoalveolar lavage were examined. The results were as follows: 1) The total protein content in the lavage fluid was significantly increased compared to the control at 1 to 7 days by ozone exposure. Both alveolar macrophage and neutrophil counts increased in response to ozone exposure. However, approximately 90% of the free cells recovered were alveolar macrophages throughout the exposure period. 2) The plasminogen activator (PA) activity released from alveolar macrophages did not change in the group exposed for 1 day. But the activities were significantly high in the groups exposed for 4 to 14 days. 3) The PA activity of the lavage fluid showed a marked increase on the 1st day of ozone exposure, and subsequently decreased rapidly. However, the significantly increased activity was maintained throughout the exposure period. 4) In contrast, the procoagulant (PC) activity was unchanged on the 1st day of ozone exposure but the activity increased significantly on the 4th day, and was maintained at a high level until the 14th day. 5) The elastase inhibitory capacity (EIC) of the lavage fluid was significantly increased compared to the control by ozone exposure, but this difference was not seen throughout the exposure period when the EIC was corrected for the total protein content in the lavage fluid. These results revealed that both PA and PC activities increased in the alveolar fluid of rats exposed to 0.5 ppm ozone. The transition in the respective activities suggested that the fibrinolytic pathway in the alveoli was enhanced early in the exposure to ozone, while the coagulation pathway was enhanced later. This imbalance in coagulation homeostasis may be important in the regulation of fibrotic responses in the lungs of rats exposed to ozone. These findings are in agreement with morphological reports indicating that ozone exposure initially damaged the alveoli and later caused pulmonary fibrosis.

Animals↗
PubMed1991

[The mechanism of airway hyperresponsiveness following immediate bronchial response in ovalbumin (OA)-sensitized guinea pigs].

We have previously demonstrated that airway responsiveness was enhanced following a late bronchial response (LBR) after an allergen challenge in ovalbumin (OA)-sensitized guinea pigs. The purpose of the present studies was to evaluate whether airway responsiveness to methacholine increased after an immediate bronchial response (IBR) and the possible involvement of the beta-adrenoceptor dysfunction in OA-sensitized guinea pigs. Guinea pigs were actively sensitized by aerosolized OA. Following OA exposure, IBR appeared. After IBR when specific airway resistance returned to the base line value, airway responsiveness to methacholine increased significantly. Before OA exposure, propranolol induced bronchoconstriction (PIB) was not provoked, however, after IBR, PIB was provoked and the guinea pigs died because of severe bronchoconstriction. These results suggest that airway responsiveness to methacholine increases significantly after IBR. Furthermore, the dysfunction of the beta-adrenoceptor may be a mechanism of this hyperresponsiveness in OA-sensitized guinea pigs.

Animals↗
PubMed1991

[The changes in cell population and chemical mediators in BALF following local allergen challenge].

In eight subjects who showed dual asthmatic response (DAR) in bronchial provocation tests (BPT) with specific allergens, local allergen challenge (LAC) was conducted using a flexible bronchofiberscope. We examined the concentrations of histamine, leukotriene B4 and C4 (LTB4 and LTC4) and cell populations in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) collected before LAC (control), during the immediate response phase (IR), and the late response phase (LR). Control BALF was collected from the left lingula (B4 or B5), and BALF in the IR or LR phase from the right middle lobe (B4 or B5). Each BAL was conducted with 50 ml of saline at 37 degrees C and repeated three times in succession. It was noted that histamine increased significantly (p less than 0.05) in IR-BALF from the control level. In addition, the concentrations of LTC4 and the numbers of eosinophils increased in IR-BALF. In LR-BALF, the numbers of eosinophils (p less than 0.01), and the concentrations of histamine (p less than 0.05), LTC4 (p less than 0.05) and LTB4 increased. From these results, it was suggested that infiltration of eosinophils and various chemical mediators in the bronchial mucosa play important roles in the development of late asthmatic response.

Adolescent↗
PubMed1991

Subjective detection of visual field defects using home TV set.

The usefulness of the noise-field spontaneously generated on a home television screen for subjective perception of visual field defects was studied in 196 eyes of ocular hypertensive or normal subjects, 166 eyes with primary open angle glaucoma and 124 eyes with low-tension glaucoma. All subjects had never perceived their field defects. In 290 glaucoma eyes, including 71 eyes of early glaucoma, 265 eyes (91.4%) could perceive abnormality of the noise-field which corresponded to visual field defects confirmed by static perimetry. In 6 normal eyes abnormality of the noise-field was perceived at the blind spot. The sensitivity and specificity of the test was 91% and 97%, respectively. The time required for testing one eye was 3-5 seconds. The results indicate that the Noise-Field Test using a home television set can be an excellent method for subjective perception of visual field defects, and can also be used for glaucoma screening.

Fundus Oculi↗
PubMed1991

[Expression and detection of platelet specific genes in human megakaryocytic cells].

The expression and biological function of interleukin-6(IL-6), and its receptor mRNA, were studied in a human megakaryocytic cell line (CMK). IL-6 possessed stimulatory effects on the DNA synthesis as well as colony formation of CMK cells. The IL-6 receptor mRNA could be detected by the method of reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) but not Northern blotting. On the contrary, IL-6 mRNA was detected by the method of RT-PCR, and its expression induced by the addition of 12-O-tetradecanoylphorbol-13-acetate (TPA) could be clearly shown by Northern blotting. These findings indicate that IL-6 and its receptor mRNA should be analyzed by both methods, and the growth and differentiation of CMK cells may be controlled by an IL-6 autocrine loop. Next, the expression and biological role of low molecular GTP-binding proteins (smg p21A and -B) mRNAs were examined in CMK cells. Both the smg p21A and -B mRNAs were detected in CMK cells using Northern blotting, and their levels were markedly elevated by TPA treatment. The mRNA level of glycoprotein IIb, a typical marker of the megakaryocytes, was increased by TPA, but the time course of the increase in the smg p21 mRNA levels was more rapid that that in the GPIIb mRNA level. These findings suggest that smg p21s play an important role during the TPA-induced differentiation of CMK cells.

Blood Platelets↗
PubMed1991

Mandibular reconstruction using the skeletal pin fixation system.

Excellent results were obtained in mandibular reconstruction by using the skeletal pin fixation system. The remaining bone was fixed before segmental resection. Case 1 was a 35-year-old male with a cementifying fibroma in the 2/6 region. We used the HH type pin fixation system and Kirschner wire (diameter 3.0 mm) for the fixation of the mandibular resection end. Case 2 was a 51-year-old male with an ameloblastoma in the 6/4 region. We used the HY type pin fixation system before mandibular resection. Case 3 was a 45-year-old female with an ossifying fibroma in the 6/4 region. The same fixation system was used as in case 2. In all cases, mandibular reconstruction was carried out with iliac bone graft and A-O plate.

Adult↗
PubMed1991

[The effect of a specific thromboxane A2 antagonist, AA-2414 on airway hyperresponsiveness induced by ozone exposure in dogs].

To determine whether thromboxane A2 (TxA2) is involved in airway hyperresponsiveness induced by ozone exposure, we studied the effect of a specific TxA2 antagonist, AA-2414 on ozone-induced airway hyperresponsiveness in seven dogs. Airway responsiveness to inhaled methacholine was determined by modified Astograph (7 Hz oscillation method), and numbers of neutrophils in the peripheral blood, neutrophil counts in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF), the levels of TxB2 and 6-keto-Prostaglandin F1 alpha (6-keto-PGF1 alpha) in BALF were measured before and after ozone exposure, and after ozone exposure with pretreated AA-2414. Ozone exposure was carried out for 2 hr at an ozone level of 3.06 +/- 0.06 ppm (mean +/- SE). Airway responsiveness to inhaled methacholine increased significantly after ozone exposure (p less than 0.01), and the hyperresponsiveness induced by ozone exposure was inhibited significantly by pretreated AA-2414 (p less than 0.01). Numbers of neutrophils in the peripheral blood and neutrophil counts in BALF increased after ozone exposure, and these increase were not inhibited by pretreated AA-2414. There was no apparent change in the levels of TxB2 in BALF after ozone exposure and after ozone exposure with pretreated AA-2414, however the levels of 6-keto-PGF1 alpha in BALF decreased after ozone exposure and after ozone exposure with pretreated AA-2414 (p less than 0.1). These results suggest that TxA2 plays an important role in the development of airway responsiveness after ozone exposure in dogs, and ozone-induced airway hyperresponsiveness may not be associated with the hyperproduction of TxA2 but with the relative increase of TxA2 due to the decrease of PGI2.

Animals↗
PubMed1991

[The changes in plasma beta-thromboglobulin (beta-TG), platelet factor 4 (PF4) and thromboxane B2 (TXB2) after a bronchial provocation test (BPT) with house dust (HD) allergen].

In order to investigate the role of platelets in allergic asthma, the time related changes in plasma levels of beta-TG, PF4 and TXB2 were evaluated following BPT with HD in 19 patients with bronchial asthma who were positive in skin test and RAST to HD. The results obtained were as follows. 1) Plasma beta-TG and PF4 levels tended to increase following BPT with HD at the time of immediate asthmatic response (IAR) in patients showing IAR alone. 2) Plasma beta-TG and PF4 levels increased significantly (p less than 0.05) at IAR and tended to increase at the time of late asthmatic response (LAR) in patients showing a dual asthmatic response (DAR). 3) The levels of plasma TXB2 in patients showing IAR alone significantly increased at IAR (p less than 0.05) and gradually decreased and the levels of plasma TXB2 in patients showing a DAR increased in each period of IAR, 3 hr after BPT and LAR, and the peak of TXB2 was observed in 3 hours after BPT. 4) These results suggest that platelets are activated at IAR and there was also a possible activation in platelets at LAR.

Adult↗