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Biomedical subjects

Lai-Chu See

Publications and source records attributed to Lai-Chu See.

At least 37 records · Page 2Linked to original sources
PubMed2004

An outbreak of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infections related to central venous catheters for hemodialysis.

OBJECTIVES: To determine risk factors for hemodialysis catheter-related bloodstream infections (HCRBSIs) and investigate whether use of maximal sterile barrier precautions would prevent HCRBSIs. SETTING: Tertiary-care medical center hemodialysis unit. DESIGN: Open trial with historical comparison and case-control study of risk factors for HCRBSIs. METHODS: Prospective surveillance was used to compare HCRBSI rates for 1 year before and after implementation of maximal sterile barrier precautions. A case-control study compared 50 case-patients with HCRBSI with 51 randomly selected control-patients. RESULTS: The HCRBSI rate was 1.6% per 100 dialysis runs (CI95, 1.1%-2.3%) in the first year and 0.77% (CI95, 0.5%-1.1%) in the second year (P = .0106). The most frequent cause of HCRBSI was MRSA in the first year (15 of 32) and MSSA in the second year (13 of 18). Ten MRSA blood isolates in the first year were identical by PFGE. Diabetes mellitus was a risk factor for HCRBSI. Age, gender, site of hemodialysis central venous catheter (CVC), other underlying diseases, coma score, APACHE II score, serum albumin level, and cholesterol level were not associated with HCRBSI and did not change between the 2 years. Hospital stay was prolonged for case-patients (32.78 +/- 20.96 days) versus control-patients (22.75 +/- 17.33 days), but mortality did not differ. CONCLUSIONS: Use of maximal sterile barrier precautions during the insertion of CVCs reduced HCRBSIs in dialysis patients and seemed cost-effective. Diabetes mellitus was associated with HCRBSI. An outbreak of MRSA in the first year was likely caused by cross-infection via medical personnel.

Case-Control Studies↗
PubMed2004

Gastric emptying function changes in patients with thyroid cancer after withdrawal of thyroid hormone therapy.

BACKGROUND: Hypothyroidism is commonly thought to cause decreased gastric emptying but is mostly associated with autoimmune disease. In the present study the gastric emptying function of thyroid cancer patients with severe hypothyroidism of short duration was evaluated with a radionuclide solid meal gastric emptying study. METHODS: Twenty-two patients who had undergone surgical operation and (131)I ablation for thyroid cancer participated in solid meal gastric emptying studies before the withdrawal of thyroxine and then again 4 weeks after the withdrawal of thyroxine. Eleven patients had an additional gastric emptying study at 6 weeks after withdrawal of thyroxine. Gastric emptying curves and emptying parameters were calculated. Student's paired t-test was used for statistical analysis of data for all cases between the baseline and at 4 weeks after withdrawal. An additional repeated measure anova with multiple comparisons was performed on data between baseline, 4 weeks and 6 weeks after withdrawal for the other 11 patients. All P values presented are two-tailed and the significance level is 0.05. RESULTS: Hypothyroidism status was confirmed by the marked change of the serum thyroxine and thyroid-stimulating hormone 4 weeks and 6 weeks after withdrawal of the thyroxine replacement (P < 0.001). The gastric half-emptying time and emptying rate changed significantly after short-term severe thyroid hormone deficiency (P < 0.005). However, the length of the lag phase did not have a statistically significant change at 4 weeks or 6 weeks after withdrawal of the thyroxin replacement (P = 0.219 and 0.142). CONCLUSIONS: Hypothyroidism following the withdrawal of the thyroxine replacement in thyroid cancer patients preparing for (131)I cancer work-up can significantly prolong gastric half-emptying time and emptying rate.

Acute Disease↗
PubMed2004

Hirayama flexion myelopathy: neutral-position MR imaging findings--importance of loss of attachment.

PURPOSE: To investigate the sensitivity and specificity of various neutral-position magnetic resonance (MR) imaging findings in the diagnosis of Hirayama flexion myelopathy. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The neutral-position cervical MR images of 46 patients and 51 control subjects were evaluated for the following findings: localized lower cervical cord atrophy, asymmetric cord flattening, abnormal cervical curvature, loss of attachment (LOA) between the posterior dural sac and subjacent lamina, and noncompressed intramedullary high signal intensity on T2-weighted MR images. The difference in frequency of these findings between the control and patient groups was examined by means of the chi(2) test. The sensitivity, specificity, accuracy, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value of these MR imaging findings in the diagnosis Hirayama disease were calculated. Multivariate analysis of these findings was also performed. RESULTS: There was a significant difference in the frequency of these MR imaging findings between the control and patient groups (all comparisons, P </=.002). Among the MR imaging findings, localized lower cervical cord atrophy, asymmetric cord flattening, and LOA had accuracy of more than 80% in identification of the disease. After multivariate analysis, LOA was the only significantly important predictor of the disease, with odds ratio of 716.7 (95% CI: 71.9, 7,145.2). Sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, negative predictive value, and accuracy of LOA were 93.5%, 98.0%, 97.7%, 94.3%, and 95.9%, respectively. CONCLUSION: LOA from posterior dural sac and subjacent lamina is the most valuable finding in the diagnosis of Hirayama disease at neutral-position MR imaging.

Adolescent↗
PubMed2004

In vitro antiangiogenic activity in ex vivo expanded human limbocorneal epithelial cells cultivated on human amniotic membrane.

PURPOSE: To compare the in vitro antiangiogenic activities of ex vivo expanded human limbocorneal epithelial (HLE) cells cultivated on preserved human amniotic membrane (AM) and to identify factors responsible for the activities. METHODS: The antiangiogenic effects were compared of culture media conditioned by AM, HLE cells, or HLE cells cultivated on intact AM (HLE/IAM), on denuded AM (HLE/DAM), or on DAM cocultured with 3T3 fibroblasts (HLE/DAM/3T3). A monolayer culture of human umbilical vein endothelial cells (ECs) was used in a proliferation and migration assay. ECs suspended in type I collagen gel were used to assess capillary tube formation. Quantitative analyses of tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinase (TIMP)-1, thrombospondin (TSP)-1, pigment epithelium-derived factor (PEDF), and endostatin (proteolytic fragment of collagen XVIII) were performed by ELISA. Immunoconfocal microscopy was performed to localize the site of endostatin expression in HLE cells and AM. RESULTS: HLE cell- but not AM-conditioned medium (CM) inhibited the proliferation and migration of ECs, and coculture of HLE cells, but not of AM, with ECs inhibited capillary tube formation. Although some data from HLE cells alone are not significantly different from the control, increased inhibitory activity was expressed by HLE/IAM and HLE/DAM and was most significantly expressed by HLE/DAM/3T3. Quantitation of TIMP-1, TSP-1, PEDF, and endostatin revealed that only the level of endostatin showed an increased expression by HLE cells cultivated on AM. Neutralizing antibody to endostatin substantially abrogated the inhibitory effect on EC proliferation and migration, but was less effective on EC differentiation. Endostatin signal was more prominent in the basement membrane zone of HLE cells cultivated on denuded AM than in those cultivated on intact AM. CONCLUSIONS: The antiangiogenic effect of HLE cells was enhanced when they were cultivated on AM and cocultured with 3T3 fibroblasts, and endostatin-related antiangiogenic factor may play a major role. This highlights the significance of cell-matrix and cell-cell interaction in the regulation of antiangiogenic factor secretion by HLE cells.

Amnion↗
PubMed2004

18F-FDG uptake in squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix is correlated with glucose transporter 1 expression.

UNLABELLED: This prospective study investigates the relationship between glucose transporter-1 (Glut-1) expression and PET images using (18)F-FDG and its uptake and compares them with the tumor status (primary vs. recurrent or persistent), initial grade of histologic differentiation, and International Federation of Gynecologic Obstetrics (FIGO) staging for cervical cancer patients. METHODS: A dual-phase (18)F-FDG PET scan was performed on 51 participants within the 2 wk before surgery or biopsy. (18)F-FDG uptake was quantified by calculating standardized uptake values (SUVs). After (18)F-FDG PET scanning, 51 histologically proven squamous cell carcinoma specimens were examined to determine their degree of differentiation, using hematoxylin and eosin staining, and the expression of Glut-1 by an immunohistochemical stain. Twenty normal cervical and 20 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) sets of tissue were also used to compare the results of Glut-1 expression in these tissues. The expression of Glut-1 was the product of (the intensity [with grades 0-3, defined qualitatively]) with (percentages of the lesion area that were positive). The results of Glut-1 expression were analyzed in combination with the SUVs (SUV1 was that at 40 min and SUV2 was that at 3 h), tumor status, initial cell differentiation, and FIGO staging. RESULTS: Significant overexpression of Glut-1 was noted in 48 of the 51 (94.1%) cancer specimens. None or only minimal expression of Glut-1 was observed in basal layers of normal and CIN tissues. Significant positive correlation was observed between Glut-1 expression and the SUVs in cervical cancer specimens (r = 0.74, P < 0.000 for SUV1 and r = 0.65, P < 0.000 for SUV2). In recurrent or persistent tumor, tumor size was significantly associated with both Glut-1 expression (r = 0.508, P = 0.011) and SUV1 (r = 0. 456, P = 0.025). For recurrent or persistent tumor, only SUV1 reached statistical significance when compared with lymph node metastasis (P = 0.0226). CONCLUSION: Glut-1 expression was related to (18)F-FDG uptake in cervical cancer patients. Recurrent or persistent cervical cancer tumor had significantly higher Glut-1 expression than metastatic lymph nodes. The values of SUV and the expression of Glut-1 did not correlate with the initial grade of histologic differentiation and FIGO staging.

Adult↗
PubMed2004

Multisection CT angiography compared with catheter angiography in diagnosing vertebral artery dissection.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Multisection CT angiography is a minimally invasive technique that can provide high-resolution and high-contrast images of the arterial lumen and wall. To our knowledge, the ability of multisection CT angiography in detecting vertebral artery (VA) dissection has never been evaluated. We assessed the sensitivity and specificity of a routine, standardized, multisection CT angiographic protocol for the detection of VA dissection. METHODS: We retrospectively reviewed multisection CT angiograms of 17 patients with VA dissection and 17 control subjects. The acquisition protocol for multisection CT angiography was 1.25-mm nominal section thickness, a table speed of 7.5 mm per rotation (9.4 mm/s), and a 0.8-second gantry rotation period. Two radiologists assessed the maximum intensity projection and axial source images. The sensitivity and specificity of this technique in depicting VA dissection were determined. RESULTS: Conventional angiography depicted 15 normal and 19 dissected VAs (including five stenotic, seven occlusive, and seven aneurysmal dissections) in the patient group and 28 normal and six atherosclerotic VAs in the control group. Multisection CT angiography enabled successful diagnosis of all 19 dissected VAs and 48 (98%) of 49 nondissected VAs but misidentified a severe atherosclerotic lesion as an aneurysmal-type dissection. The sensitivity, specificity, accuracy, and positive and negative predictive values of multisection CT angiography in diagnosing VA dissection were 100%, 98%, 98.5%, 95%, and 100%, respectively. CONCLUSION: Multisection CT angiography was a sensitive and accurate technique for the diagnosis of VA dissection.

Adult↗
PubMed2004

Case payment and the adoption of new technology: an empirical study of cataract surgery in Taiwan.

BACKGROUND: Case payment for cataract surgery with Government Employee Insurance (GEI) was implemented at Chang Gung Memorial Hospital (CGMH) in March 1994, and fee-for-service (FFS) was retained for cataract inpatients with or without other health insurance. We examined the impact of this change in the reimbursement policy from FFS to case payment on the health care provider's practice behavior towards a new emerging technology, using cataract surgery as an example. METHODS: Secondary data analysis was performed using 1 year of CGMH data before (period 1, from March 1993 to February 1994) and after (period 2, from March 1994 to February 1995) implementing the new policy. Inpatient records for cataract surgery using either extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE, the old technology) or phacoemulsification (Phaco, the new technology) were included. Logistic regression models were employed to assess how case payment affected the health care provider's adoption of new technology. RESULTS: The percentage of cases treated using the new Phaco technology grew from period 1 (6.6%) to period 2 (23.6%) among all 4 study groups, despite Phaco being more expensive than ECCE. More importantly, the increment ratio of Phaco use from periods 1 to 2 was the smallest for GEI patients (3.26-fold) when compared with the other 3 groups (4.16-5.29-fold). CONCLUSIONS: Both new technology and cost containment strategies should be taken into account when setting up a reimbursement policy.

Adult↗
PubMed2004

Polymorphisms in the promoter region of RANTES and the regulatory region of monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 among Chinese children with systemic lupus erythematosus.

OBJECTIVE: Chemokines play an important role in the physiology and pathophysiology of acute and chronic inflammatory processes. We investigated whether chemokines such as RANTES (regulated upon activation, normally T cell expressed and secreted) promoter and monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 (MCP-1) regulatory polymorphisms were associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in Chinese children. METHODS: Forty-six patients with SLE and 107 healthy children of comparable ages were studied for genotypes with polymerase chain reaction-based assays. RESULTS: The frequency and distribution of genotypes of the -28(C/G) RANTES gene polymorphism were significantly different between the 2 groups (p < 0.001), and the RANTES -28G allele was significantly more frequent in patients with SLE than in healthy controls (23.9% vs 11%; p = 0.006, OR 2.37, 95% CI 1.25-4.28). There was no significant difference in the frequency or in the distribution of genotypes of the -2518(A/G) MCP-1 and the -403(G/A) RANTES gene polymorphisms between patients and controls (p = 0.32 and p = 0.19, respectively). The RANTES -28G allele was also significantly associated with higher initial levels of antinuclear antibody, lower levels of C3, and higher incidences of central nervous system lupus. CONCLUSION: In the Chinese population, children with RANTES -28C/G polymorphisms have increased risk of developing SLE. Healthy controls with the C/G or G/G genotype were 2.37 times more likely to have SLE compared to those with the C/C genotype.

Adolescent↗
PubMed2004

Defining the priority of using 18F-FDG PET for recurrent cervical cancer.

UNLABELLED: PET with 18F-FDG has shown its potential in cervical cancer. For maximizing the benefits of this new imaging technology, we aimed to define the prognostic features of recurrent cervical cancer patients for selecting appropriate candidates using 18F-FDG PET. METHODS: Patients enrolled were from 2 independent prospective studies investigating the role of 18F-FDG PET in cervical cancer patients after definitive treatment with documented failure (CTRP-018) or unexplained elevated tumor marker serum levels (CTRP-016) and proven relapse after PET. A total of 55 eligible patients received PET and CT or MRI. Lesion status was determined from pathologic results or clinical follow-up. The benefits calculated were based on treatment that was modified because of the PET findings. The Cox proportional hazards ratio (HR) was used to select independent prognostic covariates. RESULTS: Thirty-six (65.5%) patients had treatment that was modified due to PET. Primary radiation (HR = 14.62; 95% confidence interval [CI] = 2.74-77.92), squamous cell carcinoma antigen (SCC-Ag) > or = 4 ng/mL (HR = 5.82; 95% CI = 1.53-22.04), and presence of symptoms (HR = 6.24; 95% CI = 1.99-19.61) at recurrence were significant factors associated with poor survival. A scoring system using these covariates defined 3 distinct prognostic groups: score < or = 1 (HR = 1.00); score = 2 (HR = 6.91; 95% CI = 1.49-32.14); and score = 3 (HR = 60.46; 95% CI = 9.68-378.09) (P < 0.0001). CONCLUSION: Using this risk score, 18F-FDG PET may offer maximal benefits by selecting appropriate recurrent cervical cancer patients for salvage therapy with precise restaging information.

Adult↗
PubMed2004

Ultrasonography-guided core-needle biopsy of parotid gland masses.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: An accurate diagnosis of a parotid gland mass is essential for adequate management. We determined the clinical efficacy of USCNB in diagnosing parotid gland masses by using cutting needles of different bores. METHODS: We reviewed records for 40 benign and 13 malignant parotid lesions. USCNB was performed by using 14-20-gauge needles (mean, 16.6 gauge) with one to five (mean, 2.43) passes and a 15-mm throw or specimen notch. Final diagnoses were established on the basis of surgicopathologic results in 31 cases, and on the basis of histopathologic analysis of biopsy specimens, clinical data, and/or imaging studies in 22, with a follow-up of 12.2-77.5 months (mean, 33.6 months). RESULTS: Compared with surgicopathology, USCNB had a sensitivity of 83%, a specificity of 100%, and an accuracy of 97% in providing specific tissue diagnoses and in differentiating malignant from benign masses. Its positive and negative predictive values were 100% and 96%, respectively, in diagnosing malignancy. One patient (2%) had a local hematoma without sequela after surgical removal of a Warthin tumor. Core biopsy results were completely concordant with surgical findings in 30 (97%) of 31 cases. CONCLUSION: USCNB is a safe and efficient diagnostic procedure with an accuracy of 97% in the pathologic diagnosis of parotid masses. It can be performed in an outpatient clinic and enables specific tissue diagnosis to obviate intraoperative frozen biopsy and unnecessary surgery. An 18-gauge needle is sufficient for accurate and specific tissue diagnosis of parotid masses.

Adolescent↗
PubMed2004

High satisfaction with problem-based learning for anesthesia.

BACKGROUND: The aim of this study was to compare students' satisfaction between problem-based learning (PBL) and lecture-based traditional teaching of anesthesia. METHODS: One hundred and thirty-seven fifth-year medical students were enrolled in a course which used a hybrid curriculum for teaching about anesthesia. The hybrid curriculum included 9 essential lectures and 3 related PBL case discussions. A Linkert 5-point scale was used for to assess students' satisfaction levels between PBL and lecture-based traditional teaching. Data were collected through a year-end questionnaire over 2 academic years from 2002 to 2003. Scores regarding the satisfaction levels between these 2 teaching methods were analyzed using a 2-sided paired t-test. RESULTS: Most students preferred PBL over the lecture-based traditional teaching in the following 6 aspects: learning about anesthesia, understanding other medical knowledge, being interested in and motivated to learn, training for future work, training of personal abilities, and being confident and satisfied with the teaching method (p < 0.05). However, traditional teaching was superior to PBL in enhancing the speed of learning with greater understanding of a basic knowledge of anesthesia, as well as in providing more solid content with understanding of a greater number of anesthetic techniques (p < 0.05). Satisfaction levels with this curriculum did not generally differ between students enrolled in different classes in 2002 and 2003. CONCLUSIONS: Although the assessment tools and content of PBL need to be modified, implementation of PBL for teaching anesthesia showed satisfactory results.

Anesthesiology↗
PubMed2003

Value of dual-phase 2-fluoro-2-deoxy-d-glucose positron emission tomography in cervical cancer.

PURPOSE: The role of positron emission tomography (PET) with fluorine-18-labeled fluoro-2-deoxy-d-glucose (FDG) in cervical cancer has not yet been well defined. We conducted a prospective study to investigate its efficacy in comparison with magnetic resonance imaging and/or computed tomography (MRI-CT). MATERIALS AND METHODS: Patients with untreated locally advanced (35%) or recurrent (65%) cervical cancer were enrolled onto this study. In the first part of this study, 41 patients had a conventional FDG-PET (40 minutes after injection), and in the second part, 94 patients received dual-phase PET (at both 40 minutes and 3 hours after injection). The overall results of PET scans were compared with MRI-CT, and the two protocols of PET were also compared with each other. Lesion status was determined by pathology results or clinical follow-up. The receiver operating characteristic curve method with area under the curve (AUC) calculation was used to evaluate the discriminative power. RESULTS: Overall (N = 135), FDG-PET was significantly superior to MRI-CT in identifying metastatic lesions (AUC, 0.971 v 0.879; P =.039), although the diagnostic accuracy was similar for local tumors. Dual-phase PET was also significantly better than the 40-minute PET (n = 94). The latter accurately recognized 70% of metastatic lesions and the former detected 90% (AUC, 0.943 v 0.951; P =.007). Dual-phase FDG-PET changed treatment of 29 patients (31%; upstaging 27% and downstaging 4%). CONCLUSION: This study shows that dual-phase FDG-PET is superior to conventional FDG-PET or MRI-CT in the evaluation of metastatic lesions in locally advanced or recurrent cervical cancer.

Adult↗
PubMed2003

Increase of lipid peroxidation by cisplatin in WI38 cells but not in SV40-transformed WI38 cells.

Cisplatin (CPT) is an effective anticancer drug that causes cumulative toxicity to normal tissues. It has been suggested that CPT damages normal cells by causing oxidative stress, but it is not known whether it can induce similar oxidative damage to tumor cells. In this study, by using normal human lung fibroblast (W138) cells and SV40-transformed WI38 (VA13) cells as a model, we compared the effect of CPT on cytotoxicity, apoptosis, lipid peroxidation, and mitochondrial gene expression, which could be regulated by oxidative stress, between normal and tumor cells. CPT induced greater growth inhibition and percentage of apoptotic cells in VA13 cells. However, levels of esterified F(2)-isoprostanes and 4-hydroxy-2-nonenal, two specific products of lipid peroxidation, were increased by CPT in WI38 cells, but not in VA13 cells. Furthermore, the transcript level of mitochondrial 12S rRNA was augmented by CPT in both cells, but to a higher degree in WI38 cells. The data suggest a correlation between lipid peroxidation and cytotoxicity or increased mitochondrial transcript levels in WI38 cells but not in VA13 cells. The results also indicate an altered response of oxidative damage and mitochondrial gene regulation to CPT in the transformed phenotype of WI38 cells.

Aldehydes↗
PubMed2003

Hemodynamic parameters by color Doppler ultrasound and dynamic enhanced magnetic resonance imaging in palpable T1 breast cancers.

Prospective study in 31 women with T1 breast cancers (24 invasive breast cancers and 7 in situ breast cancers) consisting of no vessel or a single vessel as demonstrated by color Doppler ultrasound (US), CDUS, who received dynamic enhanced magnetic resonance (eMRI). The flow parameters measured by CDUS and dynamic eMRI were statistically correlated and analyzed in distinguishing the invasive or in situ breast cancers and in predicting the axillary nodal status. All of the cancers were enhanced by dynamic eMRI; however, only 22 had color flow demonstrated by CDUS; 9 invasive cancers had metastasized to the lymph node. There was no correlation between the flow indices on CDUS and signal intensities on dynamic eMRI. Patterns of the signal-time curves of invasive and in situ cancers were statistically distinguishable and the correlation between lymph node status and peak systolic velocity was statistically significant. Hemodynamic parameters measured by CDUS and dynamic eMRI carry independent values in evaluating T1 breast cancers. With the knowledge of hemodynamic information, a more comprehensive approach to the treatment of these cancers can be achieved.

Adult↗
PubMed2003

Monitoring the size and response of locally advanced breast cancers to neoadjuvant chemotherapy (weekly paclitaxel and epirubicin) with serial enhanced MRI.

PURPOSE: To determine if early cancer size reduction seen on enhanced magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can serve as a response predictor and to correlate final tumor sizes on MRI and excised gross tumor size to microscopic findings in patients with locally advanced breast cancers treated with preoperative neoadjuvant chemotherapy. METHODS AND MATERIALS: Thirty-three patients with advanced breast cancer entered this prospective chemotherapeutic study. Serial, dynamic, enhanced MRI was performed before chemotherapy induction, after the first course of chemotherapy and after the third course of chemotherapy prior to surgery. Responses were measured by image subtraction of tumor size on subsequent axial MRIs using the response evaluation criteria in solid tumors (RECIST). Early tumor size reduction, percentage of relative early tumor size reduction and final tumor size response were calculated and analyzed statistically. Sizes of residual tumors measured on MRI and gross tumors in excised breasts were correlated with microscopic findings. RESULTS: Based on tumor sizes measured with enhanced MRI, four complete responders (CR), 19 partial responders (PR) and 10 non-responder were documented. Twelve (52%) of the 23 responders (CR and PR)had reached the criteria for PR (> or = 30% size reduction) after the first course of chemotherapy. All CR had a marked early size reduction (ESR) of more than 45%. Using the receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve, a good cutoff point for early tumor size reduction was 7.4 cm, with a false positive rate of 0.1 and a false negative rate of 0.13. The percentage of ESR was 8.8%, with a false positive rate of 0.1 and a false negative rate of 0.09. Residual tumor size on MRI correlated well with microscopic findings (r = 0.982, p < 0.001) and gross tumor size in excised breasts correlated moderately with microscopic findings (r = 0.640, p < 0.001). CONCLUSION: Serial, dynamic, enhanced MRI monitoring of chemotherapeutic response in patients with locally advanced breast cancer can be used to assess early response to chemotherapy and post-chemotherapy tumor size change. Although the residual tumor size on MRI correlated well with the microscopic findings, surgical determination of residual cancer load is still recommended to avoid underestimation.

Adult↗
PubMed2003

The RANTES promoter polymorphism: a genetic risk factor for near-fatal asthma in Chinese children.

BACKGROUND: RANTES promoter polymorphisms were found associated with asthma/atopy in some studies but not others, possibly reflecting the genetic heterogeneity among different ethnicities and different asthma severity. OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this investigation was to test the genetic association between the RANTES -28C/G and -403G/A polymorphisms and asthma/atopy in a cohort of Chinese children, with particular emphasis on those patients who had experienced life-threatening asthma attacks. METHODS: Forty-eight children with near-fatal asthma, 134 children with mild-to-moderate asthma, 69 children with allergic disorders but no asthma, and 107 nonasthmatic nonatopic control children were genotyped through use of a PCR-based assay. RESULTS: No significant difference was demonstrated for frequency of the RANTES -28C/G polymorphism when the mild-to-moderate asthma, atopic/nonasthmatic, and normal control groups were compared. The RANTES -28G allele was present in a significantly higher proportion of the children with near-fatal asthma compared with the nonasthmatic nonatopic controls (odds ratio, 2.93 [1.41-6.06]; P =.006) and the children with mild-to-moderate asthma (odds ratio, 3.52 [1.73-7.16]; P =.001). The frequency of -28G allele carriage correlated with asthma severity. The RANTES -28G allele was also associated with an increased blood eosinophil count and a higher degree of bronchial hyperresponsiveness. The RANTES -403G/A polymorphism did not influence asthma/atopy susceptibility, blood eosinophil count, or bronchial hyperresponsiveness. Interestingly, a higher frequency of -403A allele carriage was observed in the moderate asthma subgroup compared with the mild asthma analog. CONCLUSIONS: We conclude that the RANTES -28C/G polymorphism exacerbates asthma severity, representing a genetic risk factor for life-threatening asthma attacks in Chinese children. In addition, the linkage disequilibrium between these 2 polymorphisms is a potential confounder that must be considered in the design and interpretation of RANTES gene association studies.

Asthma↗
PubMed2003

Long-term observation of aqueous flare following penetrating keratoplasty.

PURPOSE: To understand the influence of preoperative corneal conditions, combined implant surgeries, and subsequent rejection on the aqueous flare value following penetrating keratoplasty (PK). METHODS: A total of 86 eyes of 86 patients were included. PK alone was performed on eyes with keratoconus (n = 7), corneal scar (from previous trauma or nonherpetic infection; n = 19), pseudophakic bullous keratopathy (PBK) (n = 16), and for regraft (n = 14). Combined ECCE and PC-IOL implantation (triple procedure) was performed on 17 eyes with corneal scar, and combined AC-IOL exchange was performed on 13 eyes with PBK. Aqueous flare was measured with a laser flare-cell meter at 1 week and 1, 3, 6, 12, and 24 months postoperatively. The mean follow-up was 24.7 (range 7-76) months. RESULTS: There were 11 cases (12.8%) of endothelial rejection (two in PK for corneal scar group, two in triple procedure group, two in PK for PBK group, three in PK and AC-IOL exchange group, and two in regraft group). Two corneas in PK for corneal scar group, one in PK and AC-IOL exchange group, and one in regraft group cleared up later; the remaining seven cases failed subsequently. Another 10 grafts (11.6%) failed from other causes. Eventually, 69 grafts (80.2%) remained clear at last follow-up. There was a significant difference in aqueous flare values among eyes undergoing PK only for keratoconus, corneal scar, PBK, and regraft from 1 week to 3 months postoperatively. In the corneal scar group, aqueous flare value was significantly higher from 1 week to 3 months when combined with cataract surgery. In the PBK group, the value was significantly higher from 1 week to 1 month and 6 months again when combined with AC-IOL exchange. Notably, significantly higher flare values were measured from 1 week to 6 months in eyes with later rejection. CONCLUSIONS: Preoperative diagnoses and additional implant surgeries influenced the aqueous flare counts at the early postoperative period. Persistently elevated flare value may be associated with later rejection.

Adult↗