Unpurified islet cell transplantation in diabetic rats.
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Animals↗
Biomedical subjects
H Uchida
Publications and source records attributed to H Uchida.
[Chemoembolization therapy in small hepatocellular carcinoma].
As chemoembolotherapy (TAE) for relatively small hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) including small HCC of less than 2 cm in diameter, which is restricted to a sub-subsegment, subsegment or segment of the liver, segmental Lp-TAE using Lipiodol (Lp) mixed with an anticancer agent, which includes subsegmental and sub-sub-segmental therapy, not restricted to the tumor-bearing segment, is expected to move to the forefront of HCC treatments and also causes fewer complications and less strain to the patient. Of the 15 cases that underwent surgery following segmental Lp-TAE, complete necrosis was found histopathologically in more than 80% of the main tumor, satellite nodules in the embolized region and areas of capsular invasion. Its therapeutic efficacy for 51 cases with tumors smaller than 3 cm was comparable to that of surgery.
Carcinoma, Hepatocellular↗
[Color Doppler sonographic assessment of intrahepatic hemodynamics and shunt patency after transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)].
The usefulness of color Doppler sonography for the assessment of intrahepatic hemodynamics and shunt patency was evaluated in a total of eight patients in whom the intrahepatic hemodynamics before and after transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) could be serially examined by color Doppler sonography. In six of these patients the serial sonographic examinations could be followed for more than one year after TIPS creation. Within one month after TIPS creation, Vmax in the shunt was ranged from 87 cm/sec to 242 cm/sec (mean: 142.5 cm/ sec), and the flow direction in the right anterior portal vein was reversed in all patients. More than 70% stenosis of the shunt could be diagnosed by color Doppler sonography. When the shunt was confirmed by angiography to be more than 70% stenotic or occluded, Vmax in the shunt was decreased to less than 50 cm/sec and the blood flow in the right anterior portal vein become hepatopetal. From three months before stenosis or occlusion of the shunt, it was confirmed that Vmax in the shunt was less than 70 cm/sec or the blood flow of right anterior portal vein was hepatopetal. Color Doppler sonography was useful for the assessment of intrahepatic hemodynamics, and shunt patency and prediction of shunt stenosis or occlusion following TIPS creation.
Adult↗
[Clinical evaluation of power Doppler sonography for the diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma].
We compared power Doppler sonography (PDS) with conventional color Doppler sonography (CDS) in the visualization of intratumoral blood flow of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and evaluated the usefulness of PDS for assessing of the effects of TAE with Lipiodol and anticancer agents (Lp-TAE) and for the diagnosis of recurrence of HCC after Lp-TAE. The ability of PDS and CDS to visualize intratumoral blood flow was compared in 36 patients with HCC, and the usefulness of PDS for the diagnosis of HCC was evaluated. Also, in 17 patients with HCC who underwent Lp-TAE, the usefulness of PDS for evaluating the therapeutic effects of Lp-TAE and the diagnosis of recurrence after Lp-TAE was examined. The ability of PDS to visualize intratumoral blood flow and delineate tortuous and meandering intratumoral vasculature was superior to that of CDS. The effects of Lp-TAE could be evaluated and recurrence detected accurately and easily by PDS on the basis of residual intratumoral blood flow and the appearance of new blood flow. PDS is expected to achieve widespread acceptance as a useful imaging modality for the diagnosis of HCC, assessment of therapeutic effects of TAE, and detection of recurrence of HCC after TAE.
Carcinoma, Hepatocellular↗
[A case report of a bronchogenic cyst of the diaphragm causing rupturing into the left pleural cavity].
A rare case of a bronchogenic cyst of the diaphragm was reported. The patient was a 56-year-old woman complaining of epigastric pain. A CT scan and a MRI examination revealed a cystic tumor at the left vertebro-phrenic angle. The cyst ruptured into the left pleural cavity causing chest pain and consequently reducing its size. As the cyst had enlarged again after 6 months, she received surgical treatment and the tumor was totally removed. The cyst was monolocular, originating from the diaphragm and proved to be bronchogenic cyst. It had bronchial epithelium, smooth muscle, bronchial gland and cartilage histologically. Japanese literature on the bronchogenic cysts of the diaphragm were discussed. Seven cases, including this case, of bronchogenic cysts of the diaphragm have been reported in Japan. It is rare for bronchogenic cysts to rupture into the pleural cavity.
Bronchogenic Cyst↗
[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1994). I. Susceptibility distribution].
The frequencies of isolation and susceptibilities to antimicrobial agents were investigated on 567 bacterial strains isolated from patients with urinary tract infections in 10 hospitals during the period of June 1994 to May 1995. Of the above total bacterial isolates, Gram-positive bacteria accounted for 26.8% and a majority of them were Enterococcus faecalis. Gram-negative bacteria accounted for 73.2% and most of them were Escherichia coli. 1. Enterococcus faecalis. Ampicillin (ABPC) and imipenem (IPM) showed the highest activities against E. faecalis isolated from patients with urinary tract infections. The MIC90s of them were 1 microgram/ml. Vancomycin (VCM) was also active with the MIC90 of 2 micrograms/ml. Piperacillin (PIPC) and biapenem (BIPM) were also active with the MIC90s of 4 micrograms/ml and 8 micrograms/ml, respectively. The others were not so active with the MIC90s of 16 micrograms/ml or above. 2. Staphylococcus aureus including MRSA. VCM showed the highest activities against S. aureus isolated from patients with urinary tract infections. Its MIC90 was 1 microgram/ml against both S. aureus and MRSA. Arbekacin (ABK) was also active with the MIC90 of 2 micrograms/ml. The others except minocycline (MINO) were not so active with the MIC90s of 64 micrograms/ml or above. 3. Staphylococcus epidermidis. MINO showed the strongest activity against S. epidermidis isolated from patients with urinary tract infections. Its MIC90 was 0.25 microgram/ml. ABK was also active with the MIC90 of 1 microgram/ml. Cephems were active with the MIC90s of 2 approximately 16 micrograms/ml, but penicillins and quinolones were not so active with the MIC90s and 64 approximately 128 micrograms/ml. 4. Citrobacter freundii. Gentamicin (GM) showed the highest activities against C. freundii isolated from patients with urinary tract infections. Its MIC90 was 1 microgram/ml. IPM was also active with the MIC90 of 2 micrograms/ml. Cefpirome (CPR) and cefozopran (CZOP) were also active with the MIC90s of 4 micrograms/ml and 8 micrograms/ml. The others were not so active with the MIC90s of 32 micrograms/ml or above. 5. Enterobacter cloacae. IPM showed the highest activities against E. cloacae. Its MIC90 was 0.5 microgram/ml. GM and amikacin (AMK), ciprofloxacin (CPFX) and tosulfloxacin (TFLX) were also active with the MIC90s of 4 micrograms/ml. Penicillins and cephems except latamoxef (LMOX), cefmenoxime (CMX), CPR and CZOP showed lower activities with the MIC90s of 256 micrograms/ml or above. 6. Escherichia coli. Most of antimicrobial agents were active against E. coli. CPR, CZOP, IPM, carumonam (CRMN), CPFX and TFLX showed the highest activities against E. coli. The MIC90s of them were 0.125 microgram/ml or below. Cefotiam (CTM), flomoxef (FMOX) CMX, ceftazidime (CAZ), and LMOX were also active with the MIC90s of 0.25 microgram/ml. Penicillins were not so active with the MIC90s of 128 micrograms/ml or above. 7. Klebsiella pneumoniae. CRMN showed the highest activities against K. pneumoniae. Its MIC90 was < or = 0.125 microgram/ml. CZOP was also active with the MIC90 of 0.25 microgram/ml. Penicillins were not so active with the MIC90s of 128 micrograms/ml or above. 8. Proteus mirabilis. P. mirabilis was susceptible to a majority of drugs. CMX, CAZ, LMOX, CRP, cefpodoxime (CPDX), CRMN, CPFX and TFLX showed the highest activities against P. mirabilis isolated from patients with urinary tract infections. The MIC90s of them were 0.125 microgram/ml or below. MINO was not so active with the MIC90 of 128 micrograms/ml. 9. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Most of the agents were not so active against P. aeruginosa. IPM showed MIC90 of 8 micrograms/ml. The others were not so active with the MIC90s of 16 micrograms/ml or above. CPFX showed MIC50 of 0.5 microgram/ml.
Anti-Bacterial Agents↗
[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1994). II. Background of patients].
Clinical background was investigated on 628 bacterial strains isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) in 10 hospitals during period from June, 1994 to May, 1995. 1. Distributions of sex, age and urinary tract infections Among over sixties males, the majority was taken by complicated urinary tract infections. Among females, the uncomplicated urinary tract infections was most frequent without a relation of age. As for over 40 females, the increase of complicated UTI was admitted. 2. Distribution of sex, age and pathogens isolated from UTIs In uncomplicated UTIs, Escherichia coli was most frequently isolated without a relation of age, and next Enterococcus faecalis and CNS. In complicated UTIs without indwelling catheter, E. coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and E. faecalis were isolated the most frequent. In complicated UTIs with indwelling catheter, P. aeruginosa was most frequently isolated, and next E. faecalis and Staphylococcus aureus. 3. Administration of antimicrobial agents and pathogens isolated from UTIs In uncomplicated UTIs, pathogens, after administration of antibiotics, isolated from patients have obviously decreased from 216 to 32 isolates. And also, pathogens of complicated UTIs without indwelling catheter, have decreased from 127 to 50 isolates. However, in complicated UTIs with indwelling catheter, pathogens after or before administration of antibiotics, were not revealed an obvious change. 4. Pathogens and UTIs with or without factor and operation In uncomplicated UTIs with or without factor and operation, E. coli was mainly detected. In complicated UTIs without indwelling catheter and with factor and operation E. faecalis was mainly detected, and next E. coli, S. aureus and P. aeruginosa. Without factor and operation, E. coli was mainly detected. In complicated UTIs with indwelling catheter and with factor and operation, P. aeruginosa, E. faecalis and S. aureus were mainly detected at 23.5%, 15.0%, 15.0%, respectively. Without factor and operation, Proteus spp. 22%, and next E. faecalis and P. aeruginosa 10% and 12%, were detected, respectively. The distribution of pathogens, in the case of Proteus spp. and P. aeruginosa has been obviously varied by the influence of factor and operation.
Adolescent↗
[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1994). III. Secular changes in susceptibility].
Susceptibilities of Enterococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, Citrobacter spp., Enterobacter spp., Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp., Proteus mirabilis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Serratia spp. isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) in 10 hospitals during June 1994 to May 1995 to various antimicrobial agents were compared with those in the same period of previous years according to a classification, uncomplicated UTIs, complicated UTIs without indwelling catheter, and complicated UTIs with indwelling catheter. No remarkable changes were found in susceptibilities of Citrobacter spp., Enterobacter spp. and Serratia spp. The susceptibilities of E. faecalis to amikacin and quinolones were better than those in 1993. As for S. aureus, susceptible strains to all drugs increased in uncomplicated UTIs. Against E. coli in 1993, the antimicrobial activities of piperacillin, cefotiam and aminoglycosides have decreased, however, in 1994, these activities have turned to the better state. As for Klebsiella spp. susceptible strains to ABPC decreased. The susceptibilities of P. mirabilis to all drugs except minocycline were good. Against P. aeruginosa in 1993, the activities of aminoglycosides have decreased, but, in 1994, these activities have turned to the better state. These data should be considered in clinical treatment of various urinary tract infections.
4-Quinolones↗
[Balloon angioplasty and metallic stent].
Recently, interventional radiology (IVR) has been playing an important role as a treatment for the arterial occlusive diseases. Balloon angioplasty (PTA) is widely used for the stenotic lesions and clinical results are acceptable. However, some other procedures are frequently needed, and metallic stents (MS) are useful quite often. There are three main groups of stents: self-expanding stainless metallic stents (Z-stent, Wallstent), balloon-expandable stents (Palmaz stent, Strecker stent), and shape memory alloy stents, which are not clinically available for the iliac and femoro-popliteal arteries now in Japan except for Palmaz stent. However, it is expected that these MS will be available soon. In this paper we described the clinical utility of PTA and MS for the arterial occlusive diseases in the iliac and femoro-popliteal lesions based on our experience and past reports and also mentioned the future of IVR.
Angioplasty, Balloon↗
[Drug distribution of pelvic intraarterial infusion chemotherapy by bilateral internal iliac arterial catheter placement with coil occlusion of superior, inferior gluteal and obturator arteries].
The anticancer drug distribution in pelvic arterial infusion chemotherapy with bilateral internal iliac arterial catheter placement with coil occlusion of the superior, inferior and obturator arteries was indirectly evaluated by serially performed DSA, CTA and RI on 18 patients with pelvic malignancies. The distribution was judged to be Excellent (E), defined as uniform distribution in the entire lesion alone, in 9 of 18 patients (50%) evaluated prior to the start of the arterial infusion (AI), and as Good (G), defined as uniform distribution in the entire lesion and partly on an unaffected portion, in 9 (50%). Of the 11 patients evaluated after 7 times AI, E was found in 3 patients (27%), G in 7 (64%) and Fair (F), defined as distribution with a defect in the lesion, in one patient (9%). Of the 11 patients evaluated after 14 AI, E was found in 5 (45%), G in 4 (36%) and F in 2 (18%). Of the 7 patients evaluated after 21 AI, E was found in 2 (29%), G in 4 (57%) and F in one (14%). G was found in 2 of 2 patients (100%) evaluated after 28 AI. These results suggest that this method can maintain a favorable anticancer drug distribution even after multiple sessions of AI.
Adult↗
[The effect of cyclic mechanical stretching on bovine and porcine trabecular cells].
Cultured bovine and porcine trabecular cells were exposed to cyclic mechanical stretching, and their growth rates, morphological changes, and production of prostaglandin F2 (PGE2) and prostaglandin F2 alpha (PGF2 alpha) were examined. Cyclic mechanical stretching did not affect growth rates of the trabecular cells, but the cells became spindle-shaped in contrast to the stellate shape in the controls. The production of PGE2 by trabecular cells in the logarithmic growth phase decreased in response to cyclic mechanical stretching, but the production of PGF2 alpha increased significantly compared with the controls. The production of PGE2 and PGF2 alpha by the trabecular cells in the confluent stage was not different significantly from that in the controls. These findings indicate that trabecular cells might produce PGF2 alpha in the aqueous humor in response to changes in the intraocular pressure and have a role in regulating the intraocular pressure through relaxation of the ciliary muscle.
Animals↗
[The effects of prostaglandin I2 on membrane Na+, K+ transport systems in cultured vascular smooth muscle cells].
To investigate the effects of prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) on cation regulation in vascular smooth muscle cells (VSMC), cAMP production, cytosolic free calcium concentration and cellular membrane Na+, K+ transporter activities were measured in the presence or absence of PGI2. The results were as follows. 1. PGI2 (10(-7) M) increased cAMP production, but had no effect on the cytosolic free calcium concentration of cultured VSMC. 2. PGI2 (10(-7), 10(-6) M) had no effect on ouabain-sensitive 86Rb uptake (Na+ -K+ pump activity) of cultured VSMC, but at a higher concentration (10(-5) M), PGI2 inhibited ouabain-sensitive 86Rb uptake. 3. PGI2 (10(-5) M) also inhibited 5-N, N hexamethylene amiloride (HMA)-sensitive 22Na uptake (Na+ -H+ antitransporter activity) of cultured VSMC in the presence of ouabain. 4. PGI2 (10(-5) M) had no effect on bumetanide-sensitive 86Rb washout (Na+ -K+ cotransporter activity) of cultured VSMC. These results suggest the possibility that PGI2 has a biphasic effect: PGI2 elicits relaxation at lower concentrations, but contraction at higher concentrations in cultured VSMC.
Animals↗
Detection of structural damage from glaucoma with confocal laser image analysis.
PURPOSE: To determine which structural optic nerve head parameters measured with confocal scanning laser image analysis that best discriminate between normal persons and those with glaucoma. METHODS: One randomly selected eye of 53 patients with early open-angle glaucoma (average visual field mean deviation = -4.8 dB) and of 43 age-, race-, and refractive error-matched normal subjects were studied. The performance of nine structural measures was evaluated with linear multivariate analysis and a neural network: cup area, cup to disc area ratio, rim area, height variation contour, cup volume, rim volume, cup shape measure, mean retinal nerve fiber layer thickness, and retinal nerve fiber layer cross-section area. A discriminant function was derived with two thirds of the sample and its discriminant power tested on the remaining one third. This was repeated twice so that the entire sample was used for training and testing. A neural network was trained and tested in the same way. Stereoscopic color optic nerve photographs of the same eyes were evaluated qualitatively by three experienced, masked observers. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves of discriminant function, neural network results, and qualitative evaluation were plotted. Comparisons of the areas under the ROC curves were performed with nonparametric statistics. RESULTS: There were statistically significant differences between the normal and glaucoma groups for all measures (P < or = 0.007) except for height variation contour, mean retinal nerve fiber layer thickness, and retinal nerve fiber layer cross-section area. Cup shape measure provided the single best measure to distinguish between normal subjects and those with early glaucoma and had a diagnostic precision of 84%. Neural network diagnostic precision, when all measures were used, was 92% and decreased to 82% when cup shape measure was omitted. The area under the ROC curve when all measures were combined was 0.94; it was significantly lower (P = 0.04) when cup shape measure was omitted (area = 0.84). The area under the ROC curve for qualitative optic disc evaluation by experienced observers was 0.93. There was no statistically significant difference between qualitative evaluation and neural network performance (P = 0.80). CONCLUSIONS: Cup shape measure, the statistical third moment of the distribution of depth values of the optic nerve head obtained with confocal laser image analysis, can be used to discriminate between normal persons and those with early glaucomatous damage with high diagnostic precision.
Female↗
[Psychosocial support to improve quality of life (QOL) in home terminal carcinoma patients].
There are numerous psychosocial problems with home care for terminal cancer patients. We studied one case from the viewpoint of providing support for cancer patients and their families. Psychosocial problems are important for the life of cancer patients and their families. The cancer diagnosis and the terminal stage have different levels of psychosocial concerns. We must consider effective intervention with such psychosocial support. (1) The team delivery of health care in oncology is more crucial than ever. (2) Social work plays a key role. (3) We should strive to understand the roles of other members of teams. (4) Members of a support team should take turns in providing care according to the psychosocial conditions of the patients. (5) Sympathy and a broad social outlook are required of medical staff members.
Adult↗
Bovine and porcine trabecular cells produce prostaglandin F2 alpha in response to cyclic mechanical stretching.
Bovine and porcine trabecular cells in Petri dish cultures were exposed to cyclic mechanical stretching of the dish bottom for 30 second cycles (2 Hertz) at a strain magnitude of 4.5 mm/m for up to 3 days. Growth rate of the cells was not affected by the stretching but production of prostaglandin F2 alpha (PGF2 alpha) increased. We believe one stimulus for production of PGF2 alpha in trabecular cells may be the stretching of the trabecular meshwork caused by changes in aqueous flow and intraocular pressure.
Animals↗
[Correlation between MR imaging and histopathological findings of cystic metastatic brain tumors].
To clarify the correlation between the histopathological findings and MR signal intensity of the cyst wall, fifteen cystic metastatic brain tumors of eleven patients were imaged using a 0.5T MR unit just before surgery, and the MRI findings were correlated with the histopathological findings of resected lesions. On T2-weighted images, all cyst walls showed hypointensity. On T1-weighted images, the intensity of the cyst wall could be classified into three groups, compared with the cerebral cortex. Walls with hyperintensity on T1WI(group H; n = 6) consisted of ample tumor cells, blood vessels and connective tissues, suggesting viable tumor cells. Iso-intense walls on T1W1(group I; n = 3)had abundant reactive glial tissues. Hypointense walls on T1W1 (group L; n = 5)revealed hemorrhage and/or hemosicerin in the wall, suggesting hemorrhagic necrosis. Thus a good correlation was demonstrated between the MR signal intensities and histopathological findings of cyst walls of cystic metastatic brain tumors. This may contribute not only to more precise diagnosis on MRI but also to more planning for treatment of cystic brain metastases.
Adenocarcinoma↗
Relationship of nerve fiber layer defects and parafoveal visual field defects in glaucomatous eyes.
To evaluate the relationship between nerve fiber layer defects (NFLD) and parafoveal visual field defects in glaucomatous eyes, 23 eyes of 20 patients with open-angle glaucoma were studied by scanning laser ophthalmoscope (SLO). Only eyes in which the NFLD reached the temporal raphe in either hemisphere were used. We defined three topographic parameters of NFLD: 1) the angle (theta, degrees) of line 'A' from the optic disc center to the foveal pit, and line 'B' from the disc center to a point of the NFLD at the disc edge nearest line 'A'; 2) a horizontal distance (D1, mm) along the temporal raphe between the foveal pit and the internal edge of the NFLD; and 3) a vertical distance (D2, mm) between the foveal pit and either the superior or inferior internal edge of the NFLD. We defined the nearest defect location (in degrees from the fovea) as the nearest location with sensitivity loss of at least 6 dB (Humphrey visual field program 10-2). A highly significant correlation was found between each of the NFLD parameters and the nearest defect location (P < 0.001). The NFLD parameters we defined may be helpful for evaluating parafoveal visual function in glaucoma.
Adult↗
The AML1/ETO fusion protein blocks transactivation of the GM-CSF promoter by AML1B.
The t(8;21) translocation, commonly found in acute myelogenous leukemia (AML), generates a fusion protein containing N-terminal AML1 and C-terminal ETO amino acids. The human AML1 gene encodes several related proteins that specifically bind to the sequence TGT/cGGT, located in the promoter regions of a variety of hematopoietic growth factor genes. To examine the abilities of the AML1B protein (which contains 479 amino acids), a shorter AML1A isoform (which contains amino acids 1-250), and the AML1/ETO fusion protein (which contains AML1A amino acids 1-177) to stimulate transcription from the GM-CSF promoter, we performed co-transfection experiments in T cells using a human GM-CSF promoter-CAT reporter gene plasmid and expression vectors that contain the cDNAs for one of the above proteins. Our data demonstrate that AML1B, but not AML1A or AML1/ETO transactivates the GM-CSF promoter, requiring the TGTGGT sequence contained between base pairs -68 and -53. Furthermore, we show that AML1/ETO, but not AML1A, inhibits the ability of AML1B to stimulate CAT expression. Electrophoretic mobility shift assays demonstrated the specific binding of AML1 proteins to the GM-CSF promoter TGTGGT sequence, which does not require GM-CSF sequences immediately upstream of this binding site. Our data support a role for AML1B as a transcriptional activator and establish that the AML1/ETO fusion protein can act as a dominant negative protein on the human GM-CSF promoter. Although AML1/ETO does not stimulate the transcription of GM-CSF, it may function by inhibiting the normal activity of AML1B in AML cells with the t(8;21) translocation.
Base Sequence↗