Biomedical subjects

H Tazaki

Publications and source records attributed to H Tazaki.

At least 37 records · Page 2Linked to original sources

PubMed1998

Hydrolysis of androgen receptor by cathepsin D: its biological significance in human prostate cancer.

OBJECTIVE: To elicit the biological role of a lysosomal protease, cathepsin D (CatD) in prostate cancer, by investigating its regulatory effect on the androgen receptor (AR) using human prostate cancer LNCaP cells and prostate tissue specimens. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Cell extracts were prepared from LNCaP or prostate specimens by cell lysis and tissue homogenization. Proteolytic assays were performed by incubating these extracts in acidic buffer (pH 3-4) at 37 degrees C. The resulting effects on AR and CatD were then analysed using Western immunoblots. RESULTS: The Western blots showed that AR was virtually hydrolysed with acid treatment, because endogenous CatD was activated; this activation only occurred at pH 3.2-3.5, but no specific acid appeared to be required. Further analyses suggested that CatD activation could be attributed to acid-induced autoproteolysis of mature CatD. Similar assays were also performed on prostate tissues, including normal and malignant specimens. These studies revealed that CatD-mediated AR hydrolysis was observed only in cancer specimens, while no such hydrolysis occurred in normal specimens. CONCLUSION: Endogenous CatD can hydrolyse AR, thereby possibly modulating AR function/metabolism in LNCaP cells, and in cancer specimens. CatD activity also appears to differ significantly between normal and malignant tissue. Thus, CatD may play a pivotal role as a growth modulator in androgen-dependent prostate cancer.

Blotting, Western↗

PubMed1998

Analysis of cathepsin D forms and their clinical implications in human prostate cancer.

PURPOSE: To assess cathepsin D (Cat.D) status in the prostate, we analyzed the different Cat.D forms in human prostate tissues using Western immunoblots. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Cell extracts were prepared from prostate tissues (n = 42) obtained from radical prostatectomy, adopting the tissue homogenization method. Expression of the different Cat.D forms was analyzed using Western blots. The catalytic activity of Cat.D was assayed by acid treatment, in which cell extracts were incubated in acidic buffer (pH 3 to 4) at 37C for 1 hour. RESULTS: Pathologically confirmed normal (NML), benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and cancer (CAP) specimens all expressed Cat.D, but as two distinct forms. Both NML and BPH predominantly expressed an inactive procathepsin D (Pro.Cat.D), while CAP notably exhibited an active mature Cat.D. The assessment of Cat.D activity, using PSA (prostate specific antigen) as a physiological substrate, showed that such activity was consistently higher in CAP than in NML/BPH specimens. Further studies revealed that the mode of Cat.D activation in CAP specimens appeared to be primarily due to acid-induced autoproteolysis (self-degradation) of mature Cat.D. CONCLUSION: This study demonstrates that expression and activity of Cat.D varies among prostate specimens. A greater expression of mature Cat.D with a higher catalytic activity in CAP specimens is the most notable difference from NML/BPH. Therefore, the differential expression/activity of Cat.D forms may be a useful indicator for assessing prostate cancer status.

Blotting, Western↗

PubMed1997

Role of reactive oxygen species in cis-dichlorodiammineplatinum-induced cytotoxicity on bladder cancer cells.

This study was undertaken to investigate the intracellular induction of reactive oxygen species (ROS) by cis-dichlorodiammineplatinum (CDDP) and the augmentation of their cytotoxicity in bladder cancer cells (KU7) by enhancement of ROS generation by the glutathione (GSH) depletors buthionine sulphoximine (BSO) and diethylmaleate (DEM). CDDP-induced cytotoxicity in KU7 cells and its modulation by GSH depletors were determined using spectrophotometric measurement with crystal violet staining. The effects of GSH depletors on intracellular GSH levels were confirmed using the GSH reductase-DTNB recycling method. Intracellular ROS generation induced by CDDP with or without GSH depletors was estimated from the amount of intracellular dichlorofluorescein (DCF), an oxidized product of dichlorofluorescein (DCFH), which was measured with an anchored cell analysis and sorting system. The cytotoxic effects of CDDP (IC50 15.0 +/- 2.5 microM) were significantly enhanced by BSO (IC50 9.3 +/- 2.6 microM, P < 0.01) and DEM (IC50 10.3 +/- 0.3 microM, P <0.01). BSO and DEM produced a significant depletion in intracellular GSH levels (9.6 +/- 0.4 nmol 10(-6) cells, 17.9 +/- 1.0 nmol 10(-6) cells) compared with the controls (30.5 +/- 0.6 nmol 10(-6) cells). Intracellular DCF production in KU7 cells treated with CDDP (1.35 +/- 0.33 microM) was significantly enhanced by the addition of BSO (4.43 +/- 0.33 microM) or DEM (3.12 +/- 0.22 microM) at 150 min. These results suggest that ROS may play a substantial role in CDDP-induced cytotoxicity and that GSH depletors augment its cytotoxicity through an enhancement of ROS generation in bladder cancer cells.

Antimetabolites↗

PubMed1997

Screening of H-ras gene point mutations in 50 cases of bladder carcinoma.

BACKGROUND: Mutation converts the H-ras gene into an activated oncogene in about 10% of human bladder cancers. Codons 12 and 61 are the major "hot spots" for activation. A simple and accurate method to detect point mutations in these codons may be clinically useful for early diagnosis of bladder cancer. METHODS: Bladder cancer samples from 50 patients, plus 10 samples of normal bladder mucosa, were analyzed for possible point mutation of the H-ras gene at either codon 12 or codon 61. The H-ras gene DNA segments that include these 2 codons were amplified by PCR methods, then the possible presence of a point mutation was evaluated at each codon by susceptibility of the respective DNA segments to digestion with the restriction enzyme and by dot blot hybridization assay. A bladder cancer patient who had an H-ras gene mutation was examined to see whether the mutation was also detectable in the cells released in the urine. RESULTS: Definite or possible point mutations were found in 6 (12%) out of 50 bladder cancer patients, while no mutation was detected in normal mucosa. A point mutation could also be detected in cells isolated from the patient's urine sample. CONCLUSION: The prevalence of point mutations at codon 12 or codon 61 of the H-ras gene found in this study was similar to that previously estimated for human bladder cancer by DNA transfection assay. The method we have used for detecting point mutations of the H-ras gene provides a simple and highly accurate way to detect mutated cancer cells even in the urine. It may be clinically usable for early diagnosis of bladder cancer.

Adult↗

PubMed1997

Differential diagnosis of primary benign and malignant retroperitoneal tumors.

BACKGROUND: Clinical differential diagnosis between malignant and benign tumors is important in order to select a therapeutic strategy for a primary retroperitoneal tumor. METHODS: The clinical findings and radiological features of 25 patients with primary retroperitoneal tumors were retrospectively evaluated to find those signs that might contribute to the preoperative distinction between benign and malignant tumors. RESULTS: Of 25 primary retroperitoneal tumors, 15 were benign. This may reflect the increased number of incidentally found small benign tumors. There were significant associations between the presence of symptoms and malignancy (P < 0.05), between irregular margins on imaging and malignancy (P < 0.05) and between the absence of calcification and malignancy (P < 0.05). Malignant tumors were significantly larger than benign tumors (11.45 +/- 1.90 cm vs. 5.31 +/- 0.43 cm). A retroperitoneal tumor scoring system was developed to distinguish primary retroperitoneal benign tumors from their malignant counterparts based on the: 1) maximum diameter equal to or larger than 5.5 cm, 2) presence of symptoms, 3) absence of calcification, 4) presence of irregular margins, and 5) presence of cystic degeneration or necrosis. A significant correlation was found between the incidence of malignant tumors and the total retroperitoneal tumor score (P < 0.05). CONCLUSION: This study suggests that the size of tumor, the presence of symptoms, irregular margins, and the absence of calcification may be valuable predictors of primary retroperitoneal malignant tumor.

Adolescent↗

PubMed1996

Regulation of growth, PSA/PAP and androgen receptor expression by 1 alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 in the androgen-dependent LNCaP cells.

The involvement of vitamin D in prostate carcinogenesis was investigated using the human prostatic LNCaP cells. Incubation of the LNCaP with 100 nM 1 alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 for 2 days resulted in a 30-40% suppression of cell growth, which was accompanied by a greater than 70% down-regulated expression of the proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA). The intracellular and secreted forms of PSA showed a 2-fold increase following a 48 h culture in the presence of vitamin D3. The vitamin D3-elicited PSA increases were preceded by an induction of androgen receptor (AR) expression, as measured by Western blot analysis and by binding assays using [3H]R1881 as the ligand. These results are consistent with the hypothesis that the growth inhibitory effects of vitamin D3 is partially mediated through its ability to modulate PCNA expression. Moreover, vitamin D3 may effect increases in PSA expression indirectly by up-regulating androgen receptors.

Acid Phosphatase↗

PubMed1996

Pharmacokinetics and antitumor effects of an interleukin-2 immunocomplexing agent in murine renal cell carcinoma.

BACKGROUND: Conventional therapy for renal cell carcinoma (RCC) using systemic administration of interleukin-2 (IL-2) has shown limited anti-tumor action. The purpose of this study was to investigate the anti-tumor effects of a newly developed immune complex of IL-2 (IC) against RCC. METHODS: IC was prepared by mixing IL-2 and an anti-IL-2 monoclonal antibody at a molar ratio of 2:1. The pharmacokinetics and anti-tumor effects of IC were then studied in a murine RCC line, Renca. RESULTS: Serum IL-2 levels were sustained longer in mice given IC than in mice given IL-2 alone after either subcutaneous or intratumoral injections. After an intratumoral injection of IC, the IL-2 concentration in the tumor nodules remained higher compared with mice given IL-2 alone. The anti-tumor effect was most pronounced in mice treated with intratumoral injections of IC. CONCLUSIONS: Results obtained here indicate that an immune complex of IL-2 provides a useful tool for the treatment of RCC by altering the pharmacokinetics of IL-2 in vivo.

Animals↗

PubMed1996

[Experience of 143 cases of laparoscopic surgery in urology--clinical outcome in comparison to open surgery].

(BACKGROUND). The clinical outcome of laparoscopic surgery performed in 143 patients, including laparoscopic adrenalecotmy, nephrectomy, pelvic lymph node dissection (PLND) and varicocele ligation is reported. (METHODS). In patients who underwent laparoscopic adrenalectomy (32 cases), laparoscopic nephrectomy (7) or PLND (44), the following parameters were evaluated and compared to those obtained in patients undergoing the same surgeries but by conventional open procedure; operation time, hospital stay, pain killer doses and the time necessitated for ambulation. (RESULTS). The operation was successful in 95.8% (137/143). Open laparotomy was necessitated in 4 patients to control bleeding (two in adrenalectomy and two for PLND) and in one nephrectomy case due to massive adhesion with the descending colon. The major complication occurred in 4.2% of the cases, but without mortality. The laparoscopic adrenalectomy, nephrectomy and PLND had an average operating time of 260, 304 and 139 minutes, respectively, while the open surgery for each procedure required 251, 212 and 128 minutes, respectively (p = 0. 24 approximately 0.82). Likewise, the total dose of pain killer was 0.8, 1.8 and 0.9 for the former, whereas it was 3.2, 6.0 and 3.9 for the latter, respectively (p < 0.01). The average hospital stay for laparoscopic surgery was 4.9, 6.4 and 4.7 days in the same order, whereas open adrenalectomy or nephrectomy required about 14 days (p < 0.001). Convalescence was completed within significantly shorter term in patients with laparoscopic surgery. Potential complications of laparoscopic surgery included not only those unique to pneumoperitoneum (8.1%), but also those which may be encountered during any endoscopic operation such as compartment syndrome in the lower extremities. The physiologic changes accompanying increased intra-abdominal pressure affected renal function, characterized by a significant decrease in urinary output (p < 0.02), which, however, resumed to normal range within several hours after the operation without causing permanent renal dysfunction. (CONCLUSION). These results suggest that the laparoscopic surgery in certain area in urology has less morbidity and equal accuracy compared with conventional open surgery.

Adolescent↗

PubMed1996

Role of proliferative activity estimated by bromodeoxyuridine labeling index in determining predictive factors of recurrence in superficial intermediately malignant bladder tumors.

PURPOSE: Previous studies have shown that factors predictive of tumor recurrence include a history of the disease, multiple tumors at diagnosis, and high tumor grade and stage. Additional biological marker for predicting tumor recurrence could potentially be used in the decision making process and could alter the frequency of clinical cystoscopy. We attempted to clarify whether the tumor proliferative activity estimated by bromodeoxyuridine, which is believed to be a thymidine analogue, and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) ploidy status correlates well with tumor recurrence as an objective parameter. MATERIALS AND METHODS: We evaluated 103 patients with superficial grade 2 transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder treated with transurethral resection. Mean followup plus or minus standard deviation was 49.5 +/- 11.3 months (minimum 36). Tumor specimens were obtained by transurethral cold-cup biopsy, with bromodeoxyuridine in vitro pulse labeling then performed under hyperbaric oxygen. The flow cytometric determination of the bromodeoxyuridine labeled cell index and DNA ploidy were estimated. RESULTS: When the tumor was classified according to the bromodeoxyuridine labeled cell index the 5-year no recurrence rates were 82.0 and 27.1% for an index of less than 5.3 and more than 5.3%, respectively. Furthermore, the 5-year no recurrence rates were 75.1% for DNA diploid compared to 29.3% for DNA aneuploid tumors, respectively. Multivariate analysis using Cox's proportional hazards model showed that the most important risk factor for tumor recurrence was a bromodeoxyuridine labeled cell index of more than 5.3% (risk ratio 5.31, p < 0.001), followed by DNA ploidy (risk ratio 2.61, p < 0.05). Tumor stage, initial lesion versus recurrence and single versus multiple tumors did not influence the risk factor for tumor recurrence. CONCLUSIONS: These data indicate that bromodeoxyuridine labeling status can be used as an objective risk factor for bladder cancer recurrence.

Actuarial Analysis↗

PubMed1996

[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1994). I. Susceptibility distribution].

The frequencies of isolation and susceptibilities to antimicrobial agents were investigated on 567 bacterial strains isolated from patients with urinary tract infections in 10 hospitals during the period of June 1994 to May 1995. Of the above total bacterial isolates, Gram-positive bacteria accounted for 26.8% and a majority of them were Enterococcus faecalis. Gram-negative bacteria accounted for 73.2% and most of them were Escherichia coli. 1. Enterococcus faecalis. Ampicillin (ABPC) and imipenem (IPM) showed the highest activities against E. faecalis isolated from patients with urinary tract infections. The MIC90s of them were 1 microgram/ml. Vancomycin (VCM) was also active with the MIC90 of 2 micrograms/ml. Piperacillin (PIPC) and biapenem (BIPM) were also active with the MIC90s of 4 micrograms/ml and 8 micrograms/ml, respectively. The others were not so active with the MIC90s of 16 micrograms/ml or above. 2. Staphylococcus aureus including MRSA. VCM showed the highest activities against S. aureus isolated from patients with urinary tract infections. Its MIC90 was 1 microgram/ml against both S. aureus and MRSA. Arbekacin (ABK) was also active with the MIC90 of 2 micrograms/ml. The others except minocycline (MINO) were not so active with the MIC90s of 64 micrograms/ml or above. 3. Staphylococcus epidermidis. MINO showed the strongest activity against S. epidermidis isolated from patients with urinary tract infections. Its MIC90 was 0.25 microgram/ml. ABK was also active with the MIC90 of 1 microgram/ml. Cephems were active with the MIC90s of 2 approximately 16 micrograms/ml, but penicillins and quinolones were not so active with the MIC90s and 64 approximately 128 micrograms/ml. 4. Citrobacter freundii. Gentamicin (GM) showed the highest activities against C. freundii isolated from patients with urinary tract infections. Its MIC90 was 1 microgram/ml. IPM was also active with the MIC90 of 2 micrograms/ml. Cefpirome (CPR) and cefozopran (CZOP) were also active with the MIC90s of 4 micrograms/ml and 8 micrograms/ml. The others were not so active with the MIC90s of 32 micrograms/ml or above. 5. Enterobacter cloacae. IPM showed the highest activities against E. cloacae. Its MIC90 was 0.5 microgram/ml. GM and amikacin (AMK), ciprofloxacin (CPFX) and tosulfloxacin (TFLX) were also active with the MIC90s of 4 micrograms/ml. Penicillins and cephems except latamoxef (LMOX), cefmenoxime (CMX), CPR and CZOP showed lower activities with the MIC90s of 256 micrograms/ml or above. 6. Escherichia coli. Most of antimicrobial agents were active against E. coli. CPR, CZOP, IPM, carumonam (CRMN), CPFX and TFLX showed the highest activities against E. coli. The MIC90s of them were 0.125 microgram/ml or below. Cefotiam (CTM), flomoxef (FMOX) CMX, ceftazidime (CAZ), and LMOX were also active with the MIC90s of 0.25 microgram/ml. Penicillins were not so active with the MIC90s of 128 micrograms/ml or above. 7. Klebsiella pneumoniae. CRMN showed the highest activities against K. pneumoniae. Its MIC90 was < or = 0.125 microgram/ml. CZOP was also active with the MIC90 of 0.25 microgram/ml. Penicillins were not so active with the MIC90s of 128 micrograms/ml or above. 8. Proteus mirabilis. P. mirabilis was susceptible to a majority of drugs. CMX, CAZ, LMOX, CRP, cefpodoxime (CPDX), CRMN, CPFX and TFLX showed the highest activities against P. mirabilis isolated from patients with urinary tract infections. The MIC90s of them were 0.125 microgram/ml or below. MINO was not so active with the MIC90 of 128 micrograms/ml. 9. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Most of the agents were not so active against P. aeruginosa. IPM showed MIC90 of 8 micrograms/ml. The others were not so active with the MIC90s of 16 micrograms/ml or above. CPFX showed MIC50 of 0.5 microgram/ml.

Anti-Bacterial Agents↗

PubMed1996

[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1994). II. Background of patients].

Clinical background was investigated on 628 bacterial strains isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) in 10 hospitals during period from June, 1994 to May, 1995. 1. Distributions of sex, age and urinary tract infections Among over sixties males, the majority was taken by complicated urinary tract infections. Among females, the uncomplicated urinary tract infections was most frequent without a relation of age. As for over 40 females, the increase of complicated UTI was admitted. 2. Distribution of sex, age and pathogens isolated from UTIs In uncomplicated UTIs, Escherichia coli was most frequently isolated without a relation of age, and next Enterococcus faecalis and CNS. In complicated UTIs without indwelling catheter, E. coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and E. faecalis were isolated the most frequent. In complicated UTIs with indwelling catheter, P. aeruginosa was most frequently isolated, and next E. faecalis and Staphylococcus aureus. 3. Administration of antimicrobial agents and pathogens isolated from UTIs In uncomplicated UTIs, pathogens, after administration of antibiotics, isolated from patients have obviously decreased from 216 to 32 isolates. And also, pathogens of complicated UTIs without indwelling catheter, have decreased from 127 to 50 isolates. However, in complicated UTIs with indwelling catheter, pathogens after or before administration of antibiotics, were not revealed an obvious change. 4. Pathogens and UTIs with or without factor and operation In uncomplicated UTIs with or without factor and operation, E. coli was mainly detected. In complicated UTIs without indwelling catheter and with factor and operation E. faecalis was mainly detected, and next E. coli, S. aureus and P. aeruginosa. Without factor and operation, E. coli was mainly detected. In complicated UTIs with indwelling catheter and with factor and operation, P. aeruginosa, E. faecalis and S. aureus were mainly detected at 23.5%, 15.0%, 15.0%, respectively. Without factor and operation, Proteus spp. 22%, and next E. faecalis and P. aeruginosa 10% and 12%, were detected, respectively. The distribution of pathogens, in the case of Proteus spp. and P. aeruginosa has been obviously varied by the influence of factor and operation.

Adolescent↗

PubMed1996

[Comparative studies on activities of antimicrobial agents against causative organisms isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (1994). III. Secular changes in susceptibility].

Susceptibilities of Enterococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, Citrobacter spp., Enterobacter spp., Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp., Proteus mirabilis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Serratia spp. isolated from patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) in 10 hospitals during June 1994 to May 1995 to various antimicrobial agents were compared with those in the same period of previous years according to a classification, uncomplicated UTIs, complicated UTIs without indwelling catheter, and complicated UTIs with indwelling catheter. No remarkable changes were found in susceptibilities of Citrobacter spp., Enterobacter spp. and Serratia spp. The susceptibilities of E. faecalis to amikacin and quinolones were better than those in 1993. As for S. aureus, susceptible strains to all drugs increased in uncomplicated UTIs. Against E. coli in 1993, the antimicrobial activities of piperacillin, cefotiam and aminoglycosides have decreased, however, in 1994, these activities have turned to the better state. As for Klebsiella spp. susceptible strains to ABPC decreased. The susceptibilities of P. mirabilis to all drugs except minocycline were good. Against P. aeruginosa in 1993, the activities of aminoglycosides have decreased, but, in 1994, these activities have turned to the better state. These data should be considered in clinical treatment of various urinary tract infections.

4-Quinolones↗

PubMed1995

Tumor necrosis factor and coagulopathy in patients with prostate cancer.

This study was undertaken to evaluate the relationship between serum tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and coagulopathy in patients with prostate cancer. TNF levels in 104 sera obtained from 101 prostate cancer patients were determined using an enzyme immunoassay. Serum levels of fibrin/fibrinogen degradation product E fragment (FDP) and plasma levels of fibrin degradation product D-dimer in patients with elevated serum TNF levels were 1221.95 +/- 375.94 ng/ml and 27.34 +/- 9.81 micrograms/ml, which were significantly higher than those (FDP, 94.35 +/- 13.17 ng/ml; D-dimer, 1.03 +/- 0.20 micrograms/ml) in patients with undetectable serum TNF levels (P < 0.01). In addition, patients with elevated serum TNF levels showed significant increases in plasma levels of thrombin-antithrombin-III complex and plasmin-alpha 2-antiplasmin inhibitor complex and a significantly higher incidence of positive plasma soluble fibrin monomer complex than did those with undetectable serum TNF levels. The percentage of prothrombin time was significantly decreased in the group with elevated serum levels of TNF. Serum levels of TNF were significantly elevated in patients with serum FDP levels of > or = 200 ng/ml than in those with serum FDP levels of < 200 ng/ml (3.91 +/- 0.45 versus 2.17 +/- 0.08 units/ml) and in patients with plasma D-dimer levels of > or = 2 micrograms/ml than in those with plasma D-dimer levels of < 2 micrograms/ml (3.82 +/- 0.48 versus 2.10 +/- 0.06 units/ml). These results suggest that TNF may be one of the pathogenetic factors that could explain the occurrence of coagulopathy in patients with prostate cancer.

Adenocarcinoma↗

PubMed1995

Autocrine growth of transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder induced by granulocyte-colony stimulating factor.

Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) produced by nonhematopoietic malignant cells has been reported to be capable of inducing a leukemoid reaction in the host through intense stimulation of leukocyte production. Furthermore, this is frequently associated with aggressive tumor cell growth and a detrimental clinical outcome. In this study, we identified bladder cancer cells producing G-CSF with the expression of the functional receptor, which provides direct evidence of autocrine growth of bladder cancer cells induced by G-CSF. The cancer cells used in this study were obtained from a 76-year-old man who had a metastatic transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder and who demonstrated marked leukocytosis, his peripheral blood leukocyte count was 94,900 leukocytes/mm3, and his serum G-CSF level was 103 pg/ml. The culture medium in which the cancer cells were grown exclusively contained a significant amount of G-CSF (5560 pg/ml). Significant G-CSF mRNA expression and G-CSF receptor mRNA expression in the cultured cells were demonstrated by the reverse transcription-PCR method. In addition, binding studies with the use of radiolabeled recombinant G-CSF demonstrated the presence of high-affinity G-CSF binding receptors on the cultured cancer cells. Finally, the proliferation of the cultured cancer cells was stimulated by exogenous G-CSF administration, and this stimulation was inhibited by adding anti-G-CSF antibody, as demonstrated by both the flow cytometric bromodeoxyuridine incorporation technique and the [3H]thymidine incorporation assay. These results strongly suggest that G-CSF production by the bladder cancer cells studied augments autocrine growth. Therefore, we recommend exercising caution in the clinical use of G-CSF for bladder cancer patients.

Aged↗

PubMed1995

Effects of 5 alpha-dihydrotestosterone (DHT) on the transcription of nm23 and c-myc genes in human prostatic LNCaP cells.

Proliferation of the androgen-dependent human prostate LNCaP cells was increased by the androgen DHT. Changes in the steady state level of the nm23 and c-myc mRNA in LNCaP cells, with or without 10 nM DHT, showed the nm23 mRNA to change rapidly, beginning to rise after 2 h and reaching its peak by 4 h of DHT treatment. In contrast, increases in the c-myc gene only became apparent after 4 h of treatment. Maximal increase of nm23 mRNA was observed at 10(-9) M DHT. The basal expression of c-myc and nm23 mRNAs was between 30-70% lower in the LNCaP cells, as compared with the androgen-independent PC-3 and JCA-1 human prostatic human carcinoma cells. Thus nm23 may be classified as a member of the early androgen-responsive genes.

Cell Division↗

PubMed1995

Intrarenal satellites of renal cell carcinoma: histopathologic manifestation and clinical implication.

OBJECTIVES: This study was designed to gain more insight into the incidence of satellites of renal cell carcinoma related to the pathologic stage and grade of the primary tumor. METHODS: One hundred eight nephrectomized kidneys with renal cell carcinoma were sectioned at 3-mm intervals and inspected microscopically for satellite carcinomas. The number, site, size, and distance of satellite carcinomas found were recorded in relation to the primary carcinoma. RESULTS: The overall incidence of satellite carcinoma was 6.5% (7 of 108). The incidence of satellite carcinoma in relation to the pathologic staging of the primary tumor was 7.1% (1 of 14) in pT1, 3.0% (2 of 66) in pT2, and 14.3% (4 of 28) in pT3. The incidence was higher in patients with N1 disease (25%) than in those with NO (5.0%), and higher in M1 disease (25%) than in those in MO (5.77%). There was no relationship between the grade and multicentricity. CONCLUSIONS: The incidence of satellite carcinoma was higher in cases with high-stage primary carcinoma. However, even in localized diseases (PT1, pT2), satellite carcinomas were found at at 3.75% incidence. When nephron-sparing surgery is indicated in low-stage cases, precise clinical staging using a combination of various imaging modalities is mandatory, with intraoperative ultrasonography being one possible modality for detecting a concomitant satellite carcinoma.

Carcinoma, Renal Cell↗

PubMed1995

MRI evaluation of cavitation induced by laser prostatectomy.

Magnetic resonance images obtained by endorectal surface coils have shown histopathological changes in the prostate. In patients who underwent laser prostatectomy, MR imaging demonstrated how deeply the laser energy penetrated and how different changes were induced by the coagulation and vaporization techniques. Cavitation effects were quantitatively analyzed, and the processes of reepithelization after sloughing of necrotic tissues were observed in gadolinium-enhanced T1-weighted images.

Aged↗

PubMed1995

Laparoscopic adrenalectomy: clinical results in 25 patients.

Adrenal tumors would be eminently suitable for laparoscopic surgery because of their size and location. We have performed 25 cases of laparoscopic adrenalectomy, and the purpose of this study was to evaluate the clinical results. Since November 1992, 12 men and 13 women with a mean age of 47.3 (range 29-71) years underwent laparoscopic adrenalectomy. Fifteen lesions were on the left side, and ten lesions were on the right side. The clinical diagnosis was primary aldosteronism in eight patients, Cushing's syndrome in seven, and a nonfunctioning adrenal tumor in ten. The mean operating time was 254 +/- 72 minutes (range 155-412 minutes), but the time on the last 10 cases was 216 +/- 40 minutes, which was equal to the mean operating time of the 15 open adrenalectomy cases (190 +/- 66 minutes). There was no difference in the operating time by clinical diagnosis. The time to first oral intake after the operation was shorter in the laparoscopic group, the need for analgesics was less, and the hospital stay and the time until return to preoperative activity were shorter than after open surgery. The laparoscopic cases had no significant complications, and every operation was performed completely. Although there was the learning curve for the performance of laparoscopic adrenalectomy, its operating time was equal to that of open surgery, and the postoperative recovery was significantly faster. Therefore, laparoscopic adrenalectomy would be useful compared with open surgery on the basis of invasiveness and cost.

Adrenal Gland Neoplasms↗