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Biomedical subjects

H Sato

Publications and source records attributed to H Sato.

At least 109 records · Page 6Linked to original sources

[Catamenial pneumothorax in a young patient diagnosed by thoracoscopic surgery; report of a case].

A 16-year-old woman presented with chest pain on 2 days before the onset of menstruation and was referred to our hospital because of a pneumothorax. She was diagnosed as spontaneous penumothorax and surgical treatment was performed. Thoracoscopy revealed the presence of multiple blueberry spots near central tendon of the diaphragm and little pleural effusion. No other abnormal lesions were found in the left pleural cavity and left lung. Thoracoscopic biopsy and coagulation of the lesions were successfully performed. Histological findings of biopsied specimen did not contradict as an endometoriosis and catamenial pneumothorax was diagnosed. CA 125 level of the pleural effusion had increased to 99.2 U/ml. Because she was young, she did not receive a systemic hormonal therapy.

Adolescent↗

Properties of utricular-activated vestibular neurons that project to the contralateral vestibular nuclei in the cat.

The properties of utricular (UT)-activated vestibular neurons that send axons to the contralateral vestibular nuclei (commissural neurons) were investigated intracellularly or extracellularly in decerebrate cats. A total of 27 vestibular neurons were orthodromically activated by stimulation of UT nerves and antidromically activated by stimulation of the contralateral vestibular nuclei. All neurons tested were classified as vestibulospinal (VS), vestibulooculospinal (VOS), vestibuloocular (VO), and unidentified vestibular neurons (V) after antidromic stimulation of the spinal cord and oculomotor/trochlear nuclei. Most UT-activated commissural neurons (20/27) received monosynaptic inputs. Twelve of 27 commissural neurons were located in the medial vestibular nucleus, 5 were in the lateral vestibular nucleus, 10 were in the descending vestibular nucleus, and no commissural neurons were recorded in the superior vestibular nucleus. Seven of 27 neurons were commissural VS neurons, 9 of 27 were commissural VOS neurons, and 11 of 27 were commissural V neurons. No commissural VO neurons were found. All VOS neurons and 3 VS neurons issued descending axons via the medial vestibulospinal tract. We also studied convergent inputs from the posterior semicircular canal (PC) nerve onto UT-activated commissural neurons. Five of 27 UT-activated commissural neurons received converging inputs from the PC nerves.

Animals↗

Convergence of the anterior semicircular canal and otolith afferents on cat single vestibular neurons.

The convergence between the anterior semicircular canal (AC) and utricular (UT) inputs, as well as the convergence between the AC and saccular (SAC) inputs in single vestibular neurons of decerebrated cats were investigated. Postsynaptic potentials were recorded intracellularly after selective stimulation of each pair of vestibular nerves AC/UT or AC/SAC. Neurons were recorded from the central parts of the vestibular nuclei, where the otolith afferents mainly terminate. Of a total of 105 neurons that were activated after stimulation of the AC and UT nerves, 42 received convergent inputs. Thirty-eight of these neurons received excitatory inputs from both afferents. Convergent neurons were further classified into vestibulospinal (n=28) and vestibulooculospinal (n=6) neurons by antidromic activation from the border between the C1 and C2 spinal cord and the oculomotor or trochlear nucleus. Eight neurons that were not antidromically activated from either site were classified as vestibular neurons. Forty three percent of the convergent vestibulospinal neurons and most of the convergent vestibulooculospinal neurons projected to the spinal cord through the medial vestibulospinal tract. The remaining vestibulospinal and vestibulooculospinal neurons descended through the ipsilateral lateral vestibulospinal tract. Of a total of 118 neurons that were activated after stimulation of the AC and/or SAC nerves, 51 received convergent inputs (27 vestibulospinal, 4 vestibulooculospinal, 5 vestibuloocular and 15 vestibular neurons). Forty-two of the convergent neurons received excitatory inputs from both afferents. Thirty seven percent of the convergent vestibulospinal neurons and all of the convergent vestibulooculospinal neurons projected to the spinal cord through the medial vestibulospinal tract. The remaining vestibulospinal and vestibulooculospinal neurons descended through the ipsilateral lateral vestibulospinal tract.

Afferent Pathways↗

Structural features and expression analysis of a linear mitochondrial plasmid in rapeseed (Brassica napus L.).

A linear plasmid molecule about 11 kb in length is present in the mitochondria of some varieties of rapeseed (Brassica napus L.). This plasmid can be inherited from the male parent, through the pollen, as well as by the usual maternal route, although the main mitochondrial genome is maternally inherited in rapeseed. We determined the complete nucleotide sequence of this plasmid DNA and clarified its genetic organization. The length of the linear plasmid is 11,640 bp. At the termini of the plasmid molecule are inverted repeats of 327 bp. The GC content of the plasmid DNA is 30.9%; thus, the plasmid is quite AT-rich compared to the main mitochondrial genome in higher plants. The plasmid has six ORFs, two of which encode a phage-type DNA polymerase and a phage-type RNA polymerase, respectively. RT-PCR analyses revealed that all six ORFs are transcribed, and all four ORFs on the minus strand are probably cotranscribed from a single promoter located in the terminal inverted repeat. We also show here that at least three of the six ORFs are translated into proteins in rapeseed mitochondria, and expressed at relatively high levels in flowers, as shown by Western analysis. These results suggest that this linear DNA molecule is able to replicate as an autonomous replicon and to express the genes it carries in rapeseed mitochondria.

Amino Acid Sequence↗

Paradoxical expression of cell cycle inhibitor p27 in endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the uterine corpus - correlation with proliferation and clinicopathological parameters.

p27 is regarded as a cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor of the G1-to-S cell cycle progression by suppressing the kinase activity of cyclin/cyclin-dependent kinase complex. This study aimed to investigate p27 expression in the normal endometrium and endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the uterine corpus and the correlation of its expression with cell proliferation and clinicopathological parameters. Tissue samples of 127 endometrioid adenocarcinomas and 15 normal endometria were used in the study. Immunohistochemical staining for detecting p27 and Ki-67 was performed by the labelled streptavidin-biotin method on formalin-fixed and paraffin-embedded tissue samples. The expression was given as the labelling index, which indicates the percentage of positive nuclei. p27 staining was observed in the nuclei of the glandular cells in the functional layer of the secretory phase endometrium, whereas it was negative in those of the proliferative phase. In endometrioid adenocarcinomas, the labelling index of p27 expression paradoxically increased more significantly in the higher histological grades and was correlated with that of Ki-67. The high level of p27 expression was associated with clinicopathological parameters such as FIGO stage, lymph node metastasis, lymphovascular space involvement and myometrial invasion. High p27 expression was linked to higher grades of endometrioid adenocarcinoma, cell proliferation and some clinical prognostic factors. These results indicate that p27 might be an indicator of poor prognosis.

Adenocarcinoma↗

Electronic structure of YbXCu(4) (X = In, Cd, Mg) investigated by high-resolution photoemission spectroscopy.

The valence-band electronic structure of YbXCu(4) (X = In, Cd, Mg) has been investigated by means of temperature-dependent high-energy-resolution photoemission spectroscopy using a He I resonance line (hnu = 21.22 eV) and synchrotron radiation (hnu = 800 eV). Intensities of the structure due to the Yb(2+) 4f(7/2) states in the He I spectra of YbInCu(4) and YbCdCu(4) gradually increase with decreasing temperature from 300 to 10 K, and Yb(2+) 4f(7/2) structures are clearly observed as peaks near the Fermi level (E(F)) at 10 K. The enhancement of the Yb(2+) 4f(7/2) peak from 50 to 10 K is much greater for YbInCu(4) than for YbCdCu(4). On the other hand, the Yb(2+) 4f(7/2) states of YbMgCu(4) are observed as a broad structure near E(F). In the synchrotron radiation photoemission spectra of YbInCu(4) and YbCdCu(4), the structures due to the Yb(2+) and Yb(3+) 4f states are recognized at all temperatures. The intensity ratio Yb(2+)/Yb(3+) gradually increases with decreasing temperature. The energy separations between the Yb(2+) and Yb(3+) 4f structures of YbInCu(4) increase from 50 to 20 K. For YbMgCu(4), on the other hand, almost only the Yb(2+) structures are observed and little temperature dependence has been detected.

Journal Article↗

Convergence of ipsilateral semicircular canal inputs onto single vestibular nucleus neurons in cats.

Convergent inputs from the ipsilateral semicircular canal nerves onto single vestibular nucleus neurons were investigated in decerebrate cats using intracellular recording after selective stimulation of each ampullar nerve. One hundred and seventy-four neurons were activated by stimulating the anterior semicircular (AC) and/or posterior semicircular canal (PC) nerves. These neurons were also antidromically stimulated and classified according to the pattern of their collateral projections to the oculomotor complex and the spinal cord. Four types were found: vestibulo-ocular (VO), vestibulospinal (VS), vestibulo-oculospinal (VOS), and vestibular (V) neurons, the latter of which were not activated by stimulation of either the oculomotor complex or the spinal cord. Of 174 AC- and/or PC-activated vestibular nucleus neurons, 32 (18%) received convergent inputs from both nerves. These convergent neurons included 11 VS, 6 VOS, and 15 V neurons. We found no VO neurons with convergent input. The vast majority (82%) of AC/PC-activated VS and VOS convergent neurons received excitatory inputs from both nerves, 12% received reciprocal inputs (i.e., excitatory from one and inhibitory from the other), and the remaining neurons received inhibitory inputs from both nerves. By stimulating the horizontal semicircular (HC) and/or PC nerves, 183 neurons were activated. Of these, 44 (24%) received convergent inputs from both nerves. These convergent neurons included 19 VS, 5 VOS, 2 VO, and 18 V neurons. Approximately one-half (46%) of HC/PC-activated VS and VOS convergent neurons received excitatory inputs from both nerves and 42% received reciprocal inputs, and the remaining neurons received inhibitory inputs from both nerves. In both nerve pairs, the percentage of VS neurons was higher (AC/PC, 34%; HC/PC, 43%) than that of VOS or VO neurons. Approximately half of these convergent neurons were located in the lateral nucleus. These results suggest that, during mixed angular head accelerations, the vestibulocollic reflex may be partly accomplished by VS and VOS convergent neurons.

Afferent Pathways↗

Application of synchrotron X-ray imaging to phase objects in orthopedics.

Novel imaging of the fine structures of the ribs of a pig and a specimen of human osteosarcoma utilizing the spatial coherence of X-rays was successfully performed with an incident X-ray energy of 30 keV at SPring-8, Japan. The image contrast appearing at the periphery of trabecular bone, small calcifications and small fractures is caused by the phase shift of the X-rays at the boundary of these objects that have different X-ray refractive indices. The image is recorded on mammography film without an intensifying screen. Comparison of the image contrast using different sample-to-film distances, Z, such as Z = 5 m and Z approximately 0 m, showed that the former images were always more informative, i.e. better in resolution and/or image contrast when imaging trabecular bone, bone marrow and small fractures in compact bone, and for imaging cartilage. Radiography using synchrotron X-rays for phase objects should be a powerful tool for diagnosis in orthopedics, especially for bone disease.

Animals↗

Identification of the YMN-1 antigen protein and biochemical analyses of protein components in the mitochondrial nucleoid fraction of the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

We analyzed the protein components contained in the mitochondrial nucleoid (mt-nucleoid) fraction of the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Immunoblotting with anti-Abf2p antibody demonstrated the association of Abf2p, a major mitochondrial DNA-binding protein, with the mt-nucleoids. In contrast, porin and cytochrome c oxidase subunit III (CoxIIIp) were not detected by immunoblotting in the mt-nucleoid fraction. The YMN-1 monoclonal antibody recognized a 48 kDa protein of the mt-nucleoid fraction. The N-terminal amino acid sequence of the protein and immunological evidence showed that the YMN-1 monoclonal antibody recognizes dihydrolipoyl transsuccinylase (KE2), which is one of the constituents of the alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex (KGDC). alpha-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (KE1) and dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase (E3), which are other subunits of KGDC, were also detected in the mt-nucleoid fraction. An enzyme assay of the mt-nucleoid fraction showed that cytochrome c oxidase and fumarase activity were barely detected in the fraction, but the specific activity of KGDC in the mt-nucleoid fraction was relatively high and was approximately 60% of the specific activity in the mitochondrial fraction. Three components of KGDC were detected in the DNA-binding protein fractions after DNA-cellulose column chromatography of mt-nucleoid proteins. These results suggested that a part of KGDC in the mitochondrial matrix is associated with mt-nucleoids in vivo.

Acyltransferases↗

Effect of oral diazepam on anal continence after low anterior resection: a preliminary study.

The aim of the present study was to investigate the effect of oral diazepam on anal incontinence after low anterior resection for rectal cancer. Five patients with persistent incontinence after low anterior resection for rectal cancer (median level of anastomosis was 4.0 cm from the anal verge) were treated with oral diazepam (2 mg/day) 9-90 months after surgery. Grade and frequency of anal incontinence, the need for a protective pad and changes of lifestyle were recorded to the Cleveland Clinic's continence grading scale; anorectal manometry was performed before and after 3 months of treatment. All patients improved on treatment although occasional minor soiling persisted in two patients. Continence score improved from 14 (median, range 9-16) to 0 (range 0-12) after taking diazepam. Improvement occurred within a week after administration of diazepam. Although the patients improved symptomatically, anorectal manometry failed to demonstrate any significant changes. In conclusion, oral administration of diazepam may be worthwhile in the attempt to improve anal continence after low anterior resection.

Aged↗

Minimally invasive transanal surgery for localized rectal carcinoid tumors.

Local excision is often fully justified for rectal carcinoid tumors. However insufficient surgical field and difficult access to proximal tumors have been drawbacks in performing pre-existing local excision procedures. A novel local excisional technique called minimally invasive transanal surgery (MITAS) has been experimented for local removal of carcinoid tumors in the rectum. A specially designed anal retractor connected to the Octopus retractor holder was used and an ENDO-stapler allowed the simultaneous excision and anastomosis to be performed. Eight patients with carcinoid tumors in the rectum (4 tumors in the upper rectum) underwent MITAS. Median distance from anal verge to proximal tumor was 6.5 cm (range, 5-12 cm). The median diameter of the tumor was 9 mm. Median operative time was 18.5 minutes and blood loss was minimal. No analgesics were needed postoperatively, and there was no morbidity or mortality. Full-thickness excision of the rectum was accomplished and the tumors confined in the submucosa were demonstrated histologically to be with free surgical margins. No recurrences have been observed with a median follow-up period of 39 months. The technique facilitates total excisional biopsy for rectal carcinoid tumors and reduces operative time, blood loss and complications.

Adult↗

Dose- and time-response studies of sodium o-phenylphenate urinary bladder carcinogenicity in rats.

Dose- and time-response studies of urinary bladder carcinogenesis due to orally administered sodium o-phenylphenate (OPP-Na) were performed using 5-week-old male Fischer 344 rats given diets containing 0 (control), 2500, 5000, 10,000, 15,000 or 20,000 ppm OPP-Na for 104 weeks and fed basal diets until 112 weeks (experiment 1). In addition, rats received diets containing 20,000 ppm OPP-Na for 0 (control), 12, 24, 52 or 104 weeks and were killed at week 112 (experiment 2). In experiment 1, the transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) was the major tumor type in the urinary bladder, and the dose-response curve was steep with many tumors occurring at the high doses of 15,000 and 20,000 ppm. The virtually safe dose at a risk level of 10(-6) for TCCs and papillomas was estimated to be 144 ppm by the Weibull model, a high value similar to that for sodium saccharin. In experiment 2, a few TCCs developed after 24 weeks of treatment, but the time-response curve was also steep with the majority of lesions occurring after longer exposure periods. Based on the observed steepness in dose- and time-responses, any implied cancer risk of OPP-Na at the low doses of interest to man must be considered to be very small.

Agrochemicals↗

Minimally invasive surgery for carcinoid tumors in the rectum.

Most carcinoid tumors of the rectum are confined to the submucosa with a size less than 1-2 cm and are usually suitable for local excision, as metastasis to the regional nodes is limited. Endoscopic excision of carcinoid tumors has been performed for this entity as a least invasive method but incomplete resection and/or unclear surgical margin and curability have been reported to occur in 24-42% of cases because of a limited resection up to the submucosal layer and burn effect. Transanal local excision has often been applied for rectal carcinoid tumor as a least invasive method among local excision procedures to accomplish full thickness excision for determining the curability. However, it is often difficult to obtain free access with a sufficient surgical field by the conventional method. Transanal endoscopic microsurgery (TEM) has appeared as a useful option to access a high tumor with fine visibility but special caution has to be taken for tumors sited above the peritoneal reflection. To facilitate full thickness excision even for high tumors, novel local excisional technique called minimally invasive transanal surgery (MITAS) has been developed and used for local removal of carcinoid tumors in the rectum. A specially designed anal retractor connected to the Octopus retractor holder with several novel techniques facilitated excisional procedures around the anus with a sufficient fixed surgical field and an ENDO-stapler allowed the simultaneous excision and anastomosis to be performed. The technique facilitated total excisional biopsy with less operative time and blood loss, and no mobility or mortality in 12 patients with rectal carcinoid tumors.

Adult↗

Functional visualization of the excretory system of adult Schistosoma mansoni by the fluorescent marker resorufin.

Excretion of metabolic wastes as well as xenobiotics is a major concern of all living organisms, and the Platyhelminthes including Schistosoma mansoni possess the protonephridial excretory system for their survival. Except for some ultra-structural and biochemical information, little is known about the protonephridium of platyhelminths due to a lack of established techniques for exploring the excretory activity. This study describes a new technique to assess the excretory activity of S. mansoni by use of the fluorescent marker resorufin, which is a potential substrate of the drug efflux pump, P-glycoprotein. After simple diffusion into the schistosome body, fluorescent resorufin was concentrated in the excretory tubules by an energy-dependent mechanism and excreted via the nephridiopore. The present technique of labelling functionally the excretory system was applicable to adult worms, but not schistosomula or cercariae. A variety of modulators known to interfere with mammalian P-glycoprotein function perturbed resorufin excretion from male adult schistosomes, including cyclosporin A, Ro11-2933, verapamil, or nifedipine. This technique of labelling the excretory system with fluorescent resorufin has enabled us to study aspects of the physiological function, hitherto unknown, of the protonephridial system of S. mansoni.

ATP Binding Cassette Transporter, Subfamily B↗

Ligand activation of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma induces apoptosis of leukemia cells by down-regulating the c-myc gene expression via blockade of the Tcf-4 activity.

The peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR gamma), a member of the nuclear receptor superfamily, is expressed at highest levels in adipose tissue and functions as a central regulator in the process of adipocyte differentiation. In the present study, we showed that human leukemic cell lines, not only myeloid but also lymphoid, express PPAR gamma and its activation by natural ligand (15-deoxy-Delta(12,14) - prostaglandin J(2)) and synthetic ligand (troglitazone) profoundly inhibited their proliferation by induction of apoptosis preferentially in the serum-free culture. We pursued its mechanism using the representative cell lines, and found that induction of apoptosis was accompanied by caspase-3 activation and specifically blocked by its inhibitor. While status of several apoptosis-related molecules remained unchanged, the c-Myc expression was markedly down-regulated within 24 h after troglitazone treatment. The c-myc mRNA levels were dramatically reduced at 1 h and became undetectable at 12 h after troglitazone treatment, which proved to be accompanied by complete blockade of the Tcf-4 activity in the electrophoretic mobility shift assay. We succeeded in establishing HL-60 cell lines growing well in the presence of troglitazone in the long-term serum-free culture. They showed neither induction of apoptosis nor down-regulation of the c-Myc expression via blockade of the Tcf-4 activity after troglitazone treatment. This is the first identification of the linkage between PPAR gamma-mediated apoptosis and down-regulation of the c-myc gene expression.

Antineoplastic Agents↗

Characterization of chemokine receptor expression and cytokine production in circulating CD4+ T cells from patients with atopic dermatitis: up-regulation of C-C chemokine receptor 4 in atopic dermatitis.

BACKGROUND: Th2 and Th1 cells have been suggested to express CCR3/CCR4 and CCR5/CXCR3, respectively. OBJECTIVE: We examined CCR3, CCR4, CCR5 and CXCR3 expression and cytokine production in peripheral blood CD4+ T cells from patients with atopic dermatitis (AD), which has been postulated to be a Th2-type cell-mediated disease, and then analysed the possible correlation between these values and the levels of several clinical parameters. METHODS: Intracellular cytokine production and chemokine receptor expression in peripheral blood CD4+ T cells from 40 AD patients and 20 sex- and age-matched healthy control subjects were studied by flow cytometry. RESULTS: The frequencies of IL-4- and IL-13-producing CD4+ T cells from patients with AD were significantly higher than those from healthy control subjects (IL-4:3.9 +/- 2.1% vs. 1.6 +/- 0.7%, P = 0.0005, IL-13:4.0 +/- 2.1% vs. 1.8 +/- 0.8%, P = 0.0023), whereas the frequencies of IL-2- and IFN-gamma-producing CD4+ T cells were significantly decreased in AD patients (IL-2:38.1 +/- 10.3% vs. 51.3 +/- 6.3%, P = 0.0003, IFN-gamma: 9.9 +/- 3.5% vs. 26.4 +/- 4.6%, P < 0.0001). The percentage of CCR4+ cells in CD4+ CD45RO+ T cells in AD patients was significantly higher than that in healthy control subjects (24.4 +/- 8.0% vs. 10.9 +/- 2.3%, P < 0.0001) and was correlated positively with the total serum IgE, serum lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) level, eosinophil number, eruption score, and IL-4 and IL-13 secretion in CD4+ T cells, and inversely with IL-2 and IFN-gamma secretion in CD4+ T cells. In contrast, CCR3 was not detected on circulating CD4+ T cells even in AD patients. On the other hand, the percentage of CCR5+ or CXCR3+ cells in CD4+ CD45RO+ T cells in AD patients was significantly decreased (CCR5:23.2 +/- 7.0% vs. 28.4 +/- 5.4%, P = 0.023, CXCR3:29.9 +/- 11.4% vs. 38.5 +/- 6.7%, P = 0.028) and was positively correlated with eruption score (P < 0.05). Multiple regression analyses showed that the percentage of CCR4 expression highly correlated with serum IgE, LDH, eosinophil number and eruption in AD patients. CONCLUSION: CCR4+ cells might be involved in the aetiopathogenesis of AD.

Adolescent↗

Bile acid extraction rate in the liver of cows fed high-fat diet and lipid profiles in the portal and hepatic veins.

The purposes of this study are to assess the responses of increased supplemental dietary fat in the cow, without upsetting rumen fermentation, on the bile acid (BA) extraction rate in the liver and to determine whether this diet would affect the postprandial lipid profiles in the portal and hepatic venous blood. Six Holstein cows were equipped with catheters fitted in the portal and hepatic veins. Two cows each were assigned randomly to a sequence of three dietary treatments of 21-day period. The methodology of this study was based on the supplementation of the basal concentrate diet with 0 (control), 5, or 10% calcium salts of fatty acids (CSFA). The total bile acids were significantly increased in the portal and hepatic veins with the 5% CSFA diet, whereas no increase occurred with the 10% CSFA diet. Data obtained in this study showed that 10% CSFA diet failed to stimulate BA secretion to exceed the values obtained with 5% CSFA-diet. Moreover, there was no change in the hepatic extraction rate of BA in animals fed either the 0 or 5% CSFA diets which ranged from 2.4 to 6.5-fold and 3.1 to 7.3-fold, respectively. However, the extraction rate increased sharply with the 10% CSFA diet (27-fold). The median portal and hepatic concentrations of total lipids, triglycerides, total cholesterol, phospholipids and non-esterified fatty acids did not show any significant increase during feeding of the control diet. Moreover, feeding either the 5 or 10% CSFA diet did not significantly increase these values in either vein.

Animals↗

Schistosoma mansoni: kinetics of glomerulonephritis in Mongolian gerbils and its correlation with intensity and duration of infection.

The frequent occurrence of glomerular lesions in schistosomiasis patients has been reported, although appropriate animal models for the study of schistosomal glomerulonephritis have not been developed. To analyze the relationship between glomerulonephritis and Schistosoma mansoni infection, gerbils, Meriones unguiculatus, were infected with different number of cercariae and sacrificed at different weeks of post infection. Fifty cercariae were the optimum dose to produce the disease, glomerulonephritis, without early death of the animal. Infected gerbils showed heterogeneous types of glomerular lesions with increased serum creatinine level. Immune complex deposition was not detected at glomeruli of infected gerbils even by means of immunuofluorescence and also by transmission electron microscopy. However, infiltration of mononuclear cells in and around some of the altered glomeruli was observed. Immunohistochemical staining, using monoclonal antibody (HUSM-M.g. 15) specific to gerbil's T-cells, revealed significant infiltration of T-cells. These findings suggest that T-cells might be involved in the development of glomerulonephritis. Gerbil could be a useful model to clarify the role of T-cells in the development of glomerulonephritis of schistosomiasis.

Animals↗