140th ENMC International Workshop: Myotonic Dystrophy DM2/PROMM and other myotonic dystrophies with guidelines on management.
Explore the source record for details and available documents.
Animals↗
Biomedical subjects
C Thornton
Publications and source records attributed to C Thornton.
Placental deficiency of interleukin-10 (IL-10) in preeclampsia and its relationship to an IL10 promoter polymorphism.
The placenta is pivotal in the acceptance of the feto-placental unit by the maternal immune system. Imbalance at the maternal-fetal interface of tissue pro- and anti-inflammatory cytokines may be partly involved in disease causation. Previous work has shown conflicting levels of IL-10. IL-10 levels have been shown to increase, decrease, or remain unchanged in women with preeclampsia. This study examines the difference in serum and placental IL-10 expression in women with preeclampsia and investigates if the IL10 (-1082) A promoter polymorphism contributes to lower concentrations. In a prospective case-control study of 12 women with preeclampsia and 31 controls we assessed serum IL-10 by ELISA, placental mRNA by quantitative PCR and protein by immunohistochemistry as well as placental IL10 promoter genotype. Comparisons were made with non-parametric tests where necessary and chi-square. We found a significant reduction in placental IL-10 mRNA and protein expression in women with preeclampsia compared to controls. Women with the AA IL-10 promoter genotype expressed less placental IL-10 mRNA compared to women with AG or GG genotype. There was no difference in serum IL-10 concentrations between different genotypes. Preeclampsia is associated with a deficiency of placental IL-10. Placental AA genotype in the promoter region results in significantly less placental IL-10.
Adult↗
Maternal reactivity to fetal alloantigens is related to newborn immune responses and subsequent allergic disease.
BACKGROUND: Maternal allergy confers stronger allergy risk (than paternal allergy) suggesting that maternal patterns of immune response can directly influence immune development in offspring. Women prone to allergic immune responses to allergens may also have altered immune responses to other antigens including fetal antigens. OBJECTIVE: This exploratory study examines relationships between maternal immune responses to fetal antigens and the subsequent risk of allergy. METHODS: Mononuclear cells (MNC) were collected from 36 mother-infant pairs to compare maternal (and fetal) cellular immune responses to alloantigens (fetal, maternal or unrelated donor [URD]), and allergens in allergic (18 pairs) and non-allergic (18 pairs) mothers. Thirty children had documented allergic outcomes at 6 years of age. RESULTS: In this population, allergic outcomes in the offspring were associated more strongly with materno-fetal immune interactions than with a maternal family history of allergy. Specifically, allergic disease at 6 years of age was associated with significantly higher maternal responses to fetal alloantigens (lymphoproliferation, P=0.008; IL-13, P=0.02 and IFN-gamma, P=0.015), whereas associations with maternal allergy did not reach significance (P=0.07). Fetal IFN-gamma alloantigen responses were significantly correlated with the degree of human lymphocyte antigen (HLA) mismatch (maternal HLA class II antibodies) (tau=0.3, P=0.03). The capacity of the fetus to produce IL-13 (tau=0.4, P=0.001) and IL-10 (tau=0.3, P=0.029) was directly related to the level of these cytokines produced by the mother in response to fetal antigens. Allergic mothers showed a non-significant trend for stronger lymphoproliferation to fetal alloantigens. The number of previous pregnancies (gravidity) was associated with stronger maternal responses to fetal alloantigens, as shown by lymphoproliferation (Kendall tau=0.3, P=0.04) and IFN-gamma (tau=0.3, P=0.04) synthesis, but did not affect fetal responses to the various stimuli. CONCLUSIONS: Maternal responses to fetal antigens were related to fetal immune responses and subsequent allergy. This novel observation suggests that events at the materno-fetal interface have an important influence on early immune development and should be investigated further.
Child↗
Glucocorticoids inhibit placental cytokines from cultured normal and preeclamptic placental explants.
Glucocorticoids are used in pregnancy to enhance fetal lung maturity as well as to ameliorate antepartum and postpartum HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count) syndrome, but it is not clear if glucocorticoids can modulate placental cytokine production. The aim of this study is to examine the effect of glucocorticoids at equivalent doses used for fetal lung maturity on placental tissue production of cytokines (IL-10, IL-6 and TNF-alpha). Placental biopsies were taken from the decidual surface of term placentas of normal pregnancy (n = 5) and preeclampsia (n = 5). Villous explants were cultured with increasing concentrations of glucocorticoids (betamethasone and methyl-prednisolone, 0.0025 microM, 0.25 microM and 25 microM). The dose effect of glucocorticoids on cytokines (TNF-alpha, IL-6 and IL-10) production was examined using ELISA. There was a stepwise reduction of TNF-alpha (23.6-97.5% reduction) and IL-6 (13.7-71% reduction) with increasing doses of betamethasone and methyl-prednisolone from placentas of women with preeclampsia and normal pregnancy. However, IL-10 was not altered in conditioned medium by increasing doses of glucocorticoids. Our data suggest that the ratio of pro-inflammatory to anti-inflammatory cytokine (Th1/Th2) is potentially altered by exogenous glucocorticoids. These changes have a favourable effect on the ratio in preeclampsia with a reduction in the potentially vascular active pro-inflammatory cytokines but without altering or decreasing the necessary anti-inflammatory cytokine IL-10 production in placental tissue.
Adult↗
The effect of remifentanil on the middle latency auditory evoked response and haemodynamic measurements with and without the stimulus of orotracheal intubation.
BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVE: Changes in the middle latency auditory evoked response following the administration of opioids have been shown. However, it remains unclear as to whether these changes are due to a direct depressant effect of opioids on the middle latency auditory evoked response itself, or an indirect effect on account of their action in attenuating central nervous system arousal associated with noxious stimuli. By comparing changes in the middle latency auditory evoked response in intubated and non-intubated patients, receiving saline or remifentanil in different doses, this study attempts to answer this question. METHODS: Fifty-four patients were anaesthetized with isoflurane and nitrous oxide (0.9 MAC) and randomized to 1-6 groups. Groups 1-3 received a bolus injection of either saline 0.9%, low-dose remifentanil (1 microg kg(-1)) or high-dose remifentanil (3 microg kg(-1)) prior to intubation of the trachea. Groups 4-6 were not intubated following the bolus injection. RESULTS: Pa and Nb amplitudes of the middle latency auditory evoked response increased by 82% and 79% with intubation in the saline group (P < 0.005) and these changes were not seen in the patients given remifentanil. There was a significant linear trend for the reduction in Pa and Nb amplitude with increasing remifentanil dose (P < 0.05). In the absence of endotracheal intubation remifentanil had no effect on either the amplitudes or latencies of the waves Pa and Nb and there was no effect of dose. For the haemodynamic measurements remifentanil attenuated the pressor response to intubation (P < 0.001) and had a significant dose-related effect (P < 0.001) in the absence of intubation. CONCLUSIONS: We demonstrated an effect of remifentanil on both the middle latency auditory evoked response and haemodynamic changes to endotracheal intubation. For the non-intubated patients there was only an effect of remifentanil on the haemodynamic measurements. This suggests that remifentanil has an effect on the middle latency auditory evoked response in attenuating the arousal associated with intubation of the trachea but has no effect in the absence of a stimulus.
Adult↗
Report of the 115th ENMC workshop: DM2/PROMM and other myotonic dystrophies. 3rd Workshop, 14-16 February 2003, Naarden, The Netherlands.
Explore the source record for details and available documents.
Animals↗
Quality of perioperative AEP--variability of expert ratings.
BACKGROUND: Previous studies suggest that auditory evoked potentials (AEP) may be used to monitor anaesthetic depth. However, during surgery and anaesthesia, the quality of AEP recordings may be reduced by artefacts. This can affect the interpretation of the data and complicate the use of the method. We assessed differences in expert ratings of the signal quality of perioperatively recorded AEPs. METHODS: Signal quality of 180 randomly selected AEP, recorded perioperatively during a European multicentre study, was rated independently by five experts as 'invalid' (0), 'poor' (1), or 'good' (2). Average (n=5) quality rating was calculated for each signal. Differences between quality ratings of the five experts were calculated for each AEP: inter-rater variability (IRV) was calculated as the difference between the worst and best classification of a signal. RESULTS: Average signal quality of 57% of the AEPs was rated as 'invalid', 39% as 'poor', and only 4% as 'good'. IRV was 0 in only 6%, 1 in 62%, and 2 in 32% of the AEP, that is in 32% one expert said signal quality was good, whereas a different expert thought the identical signal was invalid. CONCLUSIONS: There is poor agreement between experts regarding the signal quality of perioperatively recorded AEPs and, as a consequence, results obtained by one expert may not easily be reproduced by a different expert. This limits the use of visual AEP analysis to indicate anaesthetic depth and may affect the comparability of AEP studies, where waveforms were analysed by different experts. An objective automated method for AEP analysis could solve this problem.
Adult↗
Auditory- and somatosensory-evoked potentials in cerebral malaria and anaesthesia: a comparison.
BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVE: Parallels exist between the coma associated with cerebral malaria and general anaesthesia. They both produce reversible loss of consciousness. In the case of cerebral malaria and in the absence of other complications, patients recover without sequelae. General anaesthetics are so designed that patients recover from their anaesthetics very quickly and show no 'after effects'. This study compares brain function in these two clinical conditions by examining auditory- (AEPs) and median nerve somatosensory-evoked potentials (SEPs). The AEPs studied (waves Pa and Nb) are thought to arise from the primary auditory cortex and the median nerve SEPs (waves P15, N20, P25, N35, P45) from the pons, thalamus and primary somatosensory cortices. METHODS: Six comatosed patients with malaria (three males, three females) aged between 19 and 38 yr were studied in Zimbabwe. Their Glasgow Coma Scores on admission were 4, 3, 6, 7, 7 and 11. Their AEPs and median nerve SEPs were recorded daily over 4 days. The data were compared with those previously collected in the UK on patients and volunteers anaesthetized with desflurane, isoflurane, sevoflurane and propofol. RESULTS: In general, patients with cerebral malaria showed AEPs and SEPs similar to those of light to moderate anaesthesia i.e. 0.5-1.25 measure of anaesthetic potency (MAC), where 1 MAC is the minimum alveolar concentration necessary to prevent movement to surgical incision in 50% of patients. The appearance of the AEPs and SEPs bore no relationship to the degree of coma. The auditory brainstem-evoked response was retained in all degrees of coma, as would be expected. Otherwise, it would not be possible to interpret the waveform. In most instances, the early cortical complex Pa/Nb/Pb of the AER was present. When comatose patients emerged from malarial coma or were stimulated by talking loudly to them, they showed changes in the Pa/Nb/Pb complex similar to those seen on awakening from anaesthesia. The somatosensory-evoked response showed clear P15, N20 and P25 peaks at the expected latencies, and in some instances the waveforms of cerebral malaria and lightly anaesthetized volunteers were very similar. CONCLUSIONS: The sensory-evoked responses of the cerebral malaria patients recorded in this study were not markedly different from those seen in light-to-moderately anaesthetized patients and volunteers. The profound depression of the AEPs and SEPs associated with deeper levels of anaesthesia were not seen, with the exception of one patient several hours before death.
Adolescent↗
Auditory evoked response during propofol anaesthesia after pre-induction with midazolam.
BACKGROUND: In clinical use, midazolam reduces the dose requirement for propofol. We studied the effect of midazolam given before anaesthesia on the amount of propofol needed and the time taken, to achieve loss of consciousness (LOC) in 20 patients. METHODS: We compared the auditory evoked responses (AER) in these patients with those in a group of 20 patients who were not given midazolam. RESULTS: LOC, as defined by a loss of response to verbal command and eyelash reflex, occurred after 113 (95% CI, 99-131) s in the control group and 75 (56-101) s in the midazolam group (P < 0.05). In the control group 2.3 (2.0-2.6) mg kg-1 propofol caused LOC compared with 1.3 (1.1-1.5) mg kg-1 in the group pretreated with midazolam (P < 0.001). Pa amplitude decreased by 60% in the control group and by 54% in the midazolam group while Nb latency increased by 24% in the control group and by 32% in the midazolam group following LOC. These differences were not significant. CONCLUSIONS: We confirmed that coinduction of anaesthesia with midazolam and propofol reduces the requirement of propofol. We also demonstrated that the AER reflects anaesthetic depth rather than plasma concentrations of anaesthetic drugs.
Adult↗
Immunogenicity and reactogenicity of acellular diphtheria/tetanus/pertussis vaccines given as a pre-school booster: effect of simultaneous administration of MMR.
Four acellular diphtheria/tetanus/pertussis (aDTP) vaccines were compared with two diphtheria/tetanus (DT) vaccines given as a pre-school booster to 1033 children aged 4 to < 6 years who had completed primary immunisation with DTP vaccine according to the UK 2, 3 and 4 month schedule; 71 children had received aDTP vaccine and the remaining 962 a whole cell DTP vaccine for primary immunisation. The effect of simultaneous administration of a second dose of MMR vaccine was evaluated in 374 (37%). Overall, there was little difference in the frequency of post-vaccination symptoms in DT and aDTP vaccinees, although local reactions occurred more quickly in the aDTP group. The concomitant administration of MMR had no effect on local reactions or fever within 10 days, or on the proportions requiring a doctor's visit in the 4--6 week post-vaccination period. Local reactions > or = 3 cm were higher on day 2 in children who had received aDTP for primary immunisation (erythema 32.4% vs. 17.4% for wDTP, P = 0.0012; swelling 28.2% vs. 15.5%, P = 0.0027). Pertussis antibody responses were consistent with the antigen content of the aDTP vaccines. All were more immunogenic with respect to PT -- the only pertussis antigen which by itself has been shown to be protective in clinical trials -- than a wDTP pre-school booster given in an earlier trial. MMR vaccine had no significant effect on antibody responses to either the pertussis or diphtheria and tetanus antigens. Diphtheria antibody responses in children who had received wDTP for primary immunisation were 2.8 times higher than in those who had received aDTP vaccine (P < 0.0001); they were also higher in children who had received a single dose of a Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine containing CRM(197) conjugate after 12 months of age. For countries currently using DT vaccines as a pre-school booster, replacement with an aDTP vaccine is unlikely to have a perceptible effect on reactogenicity, at least in children given wDTP for primary immunisation, and would boost antibody levels to antigens known to be associated with protection.
Child, Preschool↗
Screening for substance use in pregnancy: a practical approach for the primary care physician.
Our goal was to identify risk factors for substance use during pregnancy for primary care physicians so that we could assess a woman's risk of alcohol or illicit drug use. Participants were 2002 Medicaid-eligible pregnant women with < or =2 visits to prenatal care clinics in South Carolina and Washington State. Structured interviews were used to collect data. Logistic regressions and classification and regression trees identified predictors for pregnant women at high risk for substance use. Approximately 9% of the sample reported current use of either drugs or alcohol or both. Past use of alcohol or cigarettes, including during the month before pregnancy, most differentiated current drug or alcohol users from current nonusers. Our analysis suggests that primary care physicians can ask 3 questions in the context of a prenatal health evaluation to target women for referral to a full clinical assessment for drug and alcohol use.
Adolescent↗
Effects of different concentrations of sevoflurane and desflurane on subcortical somatosensory evoked responses in anaesthetized, non-stimulated patients.
Twenty-four patients were recruited and given either sevoflurane or desflurane as their sole anaesthetic. Each patient was given sequentially increasing or decreasing doses at 0.5 MAC intervals, and the median nerve somatosensory evoked response recorded after an equilibration at each concentration. The N20-P25 and P25-N35 amplitudes decreased with increasing agent concentration. However, for both agents the P15-N20 amplitude response was quadratic in shape. The peak inflection points were at 3.2% for sevoflurane and 4.9% for desflurane. There were no differences between the ascending and descending groups. This increase in activity in the midbrain at 'surgical' end-tidal anaesthetic concentrations suggests more complex neuroelectrical responses to anaesthesia than simple global suppression.
Adult↗
Wavelet analysis of middle latency auditory evoked responses: calculation of an index for detection of awareness during propofol administration.
BACKGROUND: Middle latency auditory evoked responses (MLAER) as a measure of depth of sedation are critically dependent on data quality and the analysis technique used. Manual peak labeling is subject to observer bias. This study investigated whether a user-independent index based on wavelet transform can be derived to discriminate between awake and unresponsive states during propofol sedation. METHODS: After obtaining ethics committee approval and written informed consent, 13 volunteers and 40 patients were studied. In all subjects, propofol was titrated to loss of response to verbal command. The volunteers were allowed to recover, then propofol was titrated again to the same end point, and subjects were finally allowed to recover. From three MLAER waveforms at each stage, latencies and amplitudes of peaks Pa and Nb were measured manually. In addition, wavelet transform for analysis of MLAER was applied. Wavelet transform gives both frequency and time information by calculation of coefficients related to different frequency contents of the signal. Three coefficients of the so-called wavelet detail level 4 were transformed into a single index (Db3d4) using logistic regression analysis, which was also used for calculation of indices for Pa, Nb, and Pa/Nb latencies. Prediction probabilities for discrimination between awake and unresponsive states were calculated for all MLAER indices. RESULTS: During propofol infusion, subjects were unresponsive, and MLAER components were significantly depressed when compared with the awake states (P < 0.001). The wavelet index Db3d4 was positive for awake and negative for unresponsive subjects with a prediction probability of 0.92. CONCLUSION: These data show that automated wavelet analysis may be used to differentiate between awake and unresponsive states. The threshold value for the wavelet index allows easy recognition of awake versus unresponsive subjects. In addition, it is independent of subjective peak identification and offers the advantage of easy implementation into monitoring devices.
Adult↗
Evaluation of De-O-acetylated meningococcal C polysaccharide-tetanus toxoid conjugate vaccine in infancy: reactogenicity, immunogenicity, immunologic priming, and bactericidal activity against O-acetylated and De-O-acetylated serogroup C strains.
The polysaccharide capsule of serogroup C Neisseria meningitidis (MenC) has been integral to vaccine development. Licensed MenC vaccines contain the O-acetylated (OAc+) form of polysaccharide. Some MenC strains have de-O-acetylated (OAc-) polysaccharide, which may affect antibody specificity and functional activity when used in a vaccine. We evaluated an OAc-MenC conjugate-tetanus toxoid conjugate (MCC-TT) vaccine given concomitantly with whole-cell diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and oral polio immunization in 83 infants at 2, 3, and 4 months of age. Serum bactericidal activities (SBA) against OAc+ and OAc- MenC strains and OAc+ and OAc- polysaccharide-specific immunoglobulin G (IgG) levels were evaluated. MCC-TT vaccine was well tolerated. All infants produced SBA titers of > or = 8 after a single dose at 2 months of age. The SBA geometric mean titer for OAc+ strain C11 increased from 2.7 (95% confidence interval [CI] 2.2 to 3.2) to 320 (95% CI, 237 to 432), 773 (95% CI, 609 to 982), and 1,063 (95% CI, 856 to 1319) after one, two, and three doses of MCC-TT, respectively. OAc- IgG levels were twice as high as OAc+ IgG levels after the primary series of MCC-TT vaccine, and the SBA was significantly higher against the OAc- MenC strain. Antibody responses to booster vaccination with either OAc+ MenC polysaccharide vaccine (MACP) or a fourth dose of MCC-TT at 14 months of age provided evidence of immunologic memory. The acetylation status of the booster vaccine influenced the specificity of the response, with significantly higher OAc- IgG levels and SBA after MCC-TT vaccine compared to MACP vaccine but similar OAc+ antibody levels. MCC-TT vaccine is highly immunogenic and primes for immunologic memory against OAc+ and OAc- MenC strains in infancy.
Antibodies, Bacterial↗
Implementation of a large-scale ENU mutagenesis program: towards increasing the mouse mutant resource.
Systematic approaches to mouse mutagenesis will be vital for future studies of gene function. We have begun a major ENU mutagenesis program incorporating a large genome-wide screen for dominant mutations. Progeny of ENU-mutagenized mice are screened for visible defects at birth and weaning, and at 5 weeks of age by using a systematic and semi-quantitative screening protocol-SHIRPA. Following this, mice are screened for abnormal locomotor activity and for deficits in prepulse inhibition of the acoustic startle response. Moreover, in the primary screen, blood is collected from mice and subjected to a comprehensive clinical biochemical analysis. Subsequently, secondary and tertiary screens of increasing complexity can be used on animals demonstrating deficits in the primary screen. Frozen sperm is archived from all the male mice passing through the screen. In addition, tail tips are stored for DNA. Overall, the program will provide an extensive new resource of mutant and phenotype data to the mouse and human genetics communities at large. The challenge now is to employ the expanding mouse mutant resource to improve the mutant map of the mouse. An improved mutant map of the mouse will be an important asset in exploiting the growing gene map of the mouse and assisting with the identification of genes underlying novel mutations-with consequent benefits for the analysis of gene function and the identification of novel pathways.
Animals↗
A systematic, genome-wide, phenotype-driven mutagenesis programme for gene function studies in the mouse.
As the human genome project approaches completion, the challenge for mammalian geneticists is to develop approaches for the systematic determination of mammalian gene function. Mouse mutagenesis will be a key element of studies of gene function. Phenotype-driven approaches using the chemical mutagen ethylnitrosourea (ENU) represent a potentially efficient route for the generation of large numbers of mutant mice that can be screened for novel phenotypes. The advantage of this approach is that, in assessing gene function, no a priori assumptions are made about the genes involved in any pathway. Phenotype-driven mutagenesis is thus an effective method for the identification of novel genes and pathways. We have undertaken a genome-wide, phenotype-driven screen for dominant mutations in the mouse. We generated and screened over 26,000 mice, and recovered some 500 new mouse mutants. Our work, along with the programme reported in the accompanying paper, has led to a substantial increase in the mouse mutant resource and represents a first step towards systematic studies of gene function in mammalian genetics.
Animals↗
Effect of tramadol on electroencephalographic and auditory-evoked response variables during light anaesthesia.
Tramadol is a centrally acting opioid-like analgesic commonly used for analgesia during surgery. It has been stated that the use of tramadol increases the risk of awareness during anaesthesia. We studied 29 patients under steady state anaesthesia, ventilated via a laryngeal mask airway with 0.6 MAC isoflurane in 50% nitrous oxide, and with no surgical stimulus. The electroencephalogram (EEG) and auditory-evoked response (AER) were recorded throughout the study period, as were pulse and arterial pressure. Patients were given randomly a bolus of either saline (S), tramadol 100 mg (T1), or tramadol 200 mg (T2). Significant increases in systolic arterial pressure and decreases in heart rate were seen in the tramadol groups compared to the saline group. Significant, dose-related activation in all EEG variables (median power frequency, spectral edge, Delta Power and Alpha/Delta ratio) but no significant change in Pa or Nb amplitudes or latencies were noted. The EEG changes were not at levels thought to be associated with awareness. This study indicates that tramadol, whilst causing EEG activation, has no effect on depth of anaesthesia as measured by the AER.
Adolescent↗
Measuring self-esteem in dieting disordered patients: the validity of the Rosenberg and Coopersmith contrasted.
OBJECTIVE: In order to ascertain the most appropriate measure of self-esteem for dieting disordered patients, this study contrasted the construct and convergent validities of two widely used measures. In addition, dieting disordered subgroups were compared on levels of self-esteem. METHOD: One hundred and seventeen male and female patients diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, or eating disorder not otherwise specified completed the Rosenberg Self-Esteem Scale (SES), the Coopersmith Self-Esteem Inventory (SEI), and measures of dieting disorder pathology and depression. RESULTS: No significant differences among the three dieting disorder subgroups were found. In determining convergent validity, regression analyses indicated that the SES was a significant predictor of dieting disorder psychopathology whereas the SEI was not. Of the two self-esteem measures, only the SES showed evidence of convergent validity. DISCUSSION: The results suggest that the SES has sounder construct and convergent validity than the SEI. Hence, the SES may be more appropriate for use with dieting disordered populations.
Adult↗