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C Beard

Publications and source records attributed to C Beard.

At least 19 recordsLinked to original sources

DNA hypomethylation perturbs the function and survival of CNS neurons in postnatal animals.

DNA methyltransferase I (Dnmt1), the maintenance enzyme for DNA cytosine methylation, is expressed at high levels in the CNS during embryogenesis and after birth. Because embryos deficient for Dnmt1 die at gastrulation, the role of Dnmt1 in the development and function of the nervous system could not be studied by using this mutation. We therefore used the cre/loxP system to produce conditional mutants that lack Dnmt1 in neuroblasts of embryonic day 12 embryos or in postmitotic neurons of the postnatal animal. Conditional deletion of the Dnmt1 gene resulted in rapid depletion of Dnmt1 proteins, indicating that the enzyme in postmitotic neurons turns over quickly. Dnmt1 deficiency in postmitotic neurons neither affected levels of global DNA methylation nor influenced cell survival during postnatal life. In contrast, Dnmt1 deficiency in mitotic CNS precursor cells resulted in DNA hypomethylation in daughter cells. Whereas mutant embryos carrying 95% hypomethylated cells in the brain died immediately after birth because of respiratory distress, mosaic animals with 30% hypomethylated CNS cells were viable into adulthood. However, these mutant cells were eliminated quickly from the brain within 3 weeks of postnatal life. Thus, hypomethylated CNS neurons were impaired functionally and were selected against at postnatal stages.

Animals↗

A nonextinction procedure for long-term studies of classically conditioned enhancement of acoustic startle in the rat.

In the Fear-Potentiated Startle (FPS) paradigm, the reflexive response to a noise burst is enhanced when it is presented with a stimulus (typically a light) that previously had been paired with the presentation of an aversive stimulus, usually an electric shock. In the FPS paradigm, the conditioned effect is demonstrated under conditions of extinction, i.e., the light is not paired with the shock during FPS testing. Because of this, the FPS paradigm is of somewhat limited value as a longitudinal measure for studying classically conditioned enhancement of acoustic startle. The present studies report a simple and reliable nonshock procedure for studying classically conditioned potentiation of acoustic startle in the rat that does not utilize testing under conditions of extinction. Naive rats were exposed to 5-or 3-days/week startle test sessions for up to 20 weeks. Twenty (20) startle stimuli (115 dB noise bursts; 40 ms in duration) were presented during each session. Half of these startle stimuli were presented in darkness and half were immediately preceded by a 3500-ms presentation of a 15-W light. With this paradigm, the effects of pairing the light with the startle noise burst could be studied across many test sessions in the absence of extinction training. The light did not increase startle amplitude on the first few startle trials of the first test session. By the end of the first session, however, and continuing for many weeks of testing, startle responses in the presence of the light were significantly greater (by 30-40%) than in the absence of the light. The finding that the startle stimulus itself can serve as an unconditioned stimulus (UCS) to enhance subsequent startle responses replicates an earlier finding. The persistence of this Startle-Potentiated Startle (SPS) effect across multiple weeks of testing is in contrast to that earlier report.

Acoustic Stimulation↗

Loss of genomic methylation causes p53-dependent apoptosis and epigenetic deregulation.

Cytosine methylation of mammalian DNA is essential for the proper epigenetic regulation of gene expression and maintenance of genomic integrity. To define the mechanism through which demethylated cells die, and to establish a paradigm for identifying genes regulated by DNA methylation, we have generated mice with a conditional allele for the maintenance DNA methyltransferase gene Dnmt1. Cre-mediated deletion of Dnmt1 causes demethylation of cultured fibroblasts and a uniform p53-dependent cell death. Mutational inactivation of Trp53 partially rescues the demethylated fibroblasts for up to five population doublings in culture. Oligonucleotide microarray analysis showed that up to 10% of genes are aberrantly expressed in demethylated fibroblasts. Our results demonstrate that loss of Dnmt1 causes cell-type-specific changes in gene expression that impinge on several pathways, including expression of imprinted genes, cell-cycle control, growth factor/receptor signal transduction and mobilization of retroelements.

Alleles↗

V(D)J recombination is not activated by demethylation of the kappa locus.

V(D)J recombination is thought to be regulated by changes in the accessibility of target sites, such as modulation of methylation. To test whether demethylation of the kappa locus can activate recombination, we generated two recombinationally active B cell lines in which the gene for maintenance of genomic DNA methylation, Dnmt1, was flanked with loxP sites. Transduction with a retrovirus expressing both the cre recombinase and green fluorescent protein allowed us to purify recombinationally active cells devoid of methylation. Loss of methylation of the kappa locus was not sufficient to activate recombination, although transcription was activated in one line. It appears that demethylation of the kappa locus is not the rate-limiting step for altering accessibility and thus regulated demethylation does not generate specificity of recombination.

Animals↗

Mutations in the WRN gene in mice accelerate mortality in a p53-null background.

Werner's syndrome (WS) is a human disease with manifestations resembling premature aging. The gene defective in WS, WRN, encodes a DNA helicase. Here, we describe the generation of mice bearing a mutation that eliminates expression of the C terminus of the helicase domain of the WRN protein. Mutant mice are born at the expected Mendelian frequency and do not show any overt histological signs of accelerated senescence. These mice are capable of living beyond 2 years of age. Cells from these animals do not show elevated susceptibility to the genotoxins camptothecin or 4-NQO. However, mutant fibroblasts senesce approximately one passage earlier than controls. Importantly, WRN(-/-);p53(-/-) mice show an increased mortality rate relative to WRN(+/-);p53(-/-) animals. We consider possible models for the synergy between p53 and WRN mutations for the determination of life span.

4-Nitroquinoline-1-oxide↗

Development of DNA vaccines for foot-and-mouth disease, evaluation of vaccines encoding replicating and non-replicating nucleic acids in swine.

We have developed naked DNA vaccine candidates for foot-and-mouth disease (FMD), an important disease of domestic animals. The virus that causes this disease, FMDV, is a member of the picornavirus family, which includes many important human pathogens, such as poliovirus, hepatitis A virus, and rhinovirus. Picornaviruses are characterized by a small (7-9000 nucleotide) RNA genome that encodes capsid proteins, processing proteinases, and enzymes required for RNA replication. We have developed two different types of DNA vaccines for FMD. The first DNA vaccine, pP12X3C, encodes the viral capsid gene (P1) and the processing proteinase (3C). Cells transfected with this DNA produce processed viral antigen, and animals inoculated with this DNA using a gene gun produced detectable antiviral immune responses. Mouse inoculations with this plasmid, and with a derivative containing a mutation in the 3C proteinase, indicated that capsid assembly was essential for induction of neutralizing antibody responses. The second DNA vaccine candidate, pWRMHX, encodes the entire FMDV genome, including the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, permitting the plasmid-encoded viral genomes to undergo amplification in susceptible cells. pWRMHX encodes a mutation at the cell binding site, preventing the replicated genomes from causing disease. Swine inoculated with this vaccine candidate produce viral particles lacking the cell binding site, and neutralizing antibodies that recognize the virus. Comparison of the immune responses elicited by pP12X3C and pWRMHX in swine indicate that the plasmid encoding the replicating genome stimulated a stronger immune response, and swine inoculated with pWRMHX by the intramuscular, intradermal, or gene gun routes were partially protected from a highly virulent FMD challenge.

Animals↗

DNA hypomethylation leads to elevated mutation rates.

Genome-wide demethylation has been suggested to be a step in carcinogenesis. Evidence for this notion comes from the frequently observed global DNA hypomethylation in tumour cells, and from a recent study suggesting that defects in DNA methylation might contribute to the genomic instability of some colorectal tumour cell lines. DNA hypomethylation has also been associated with abnormal chromosomal structures, as observed in cells from patients with ICF (Immunodeficiency, Centromeric instability and Facial abnormalities) syndrome and in cells treated with the demethylating agent 5-azadeoxycytidine. Here we report that murine embryonic stem cells nullizygous for the major DNA methyltransferase (Dnmt1) gene exhibited significantly elevated mutation rates at both the endogenous hypoxanthine phosphoribosyltransferase (Hprt) gene and an integrated viral thymidine kinase (tk) transgene. Gene deletions were the predominant mutations at both loci. The major cause of the observed tk deletions was either mitotic recombination or chromosomal loss accompanied by duplication of the remaining chromosome. Our results imply an important role for mammalian DNA methylation in maintaining genome stability.

Animals↗

Calculated prostate carcinoma volume: The optimal predictor of 3-year prostate specific antigen (PSA) failure free survival after surgery or radiation therapy of patients with pretreatment PSA levels of 4-20 nanograms per milliliter.

BACKGROUND: In this study, the authors evaluated whether a clinically relevant stratification of prostate specific antigen (PSA) failure free survival (bNED) after definitive local therapy could be made for patients with prostate carcinoma clinically classified as T1 or T2 and pretreatment PSA levels of 4-20 ng/mL. METHODS: Multivariate Cox regression analysis and Kaplan-Meier analysis were performed for clinically localized prostate carcinoma patients who presented with PSA levels of 4-20 ng/mL. Three hundred forty-eight of the patients were managed definitively with conventional external beam radiation therapy (median dose, 67 gray), whereas 547 of the patients were managed definitively with a radical retropubic prostatectomy. The outcome tested was time to posttreatment PSA failure. The clinical predictors evaluated included the standard paradigm (PSA, biopsy Gleason score, and clinical stage); type of local therapy; and a newly defined factor, the calculated prostate cancer volume (cV[Ca]). RESULTS: Time to posttreatment PSA failure was equivalent (P = 0.52) independent of the type of local therapy. The cV(Ca) (P < 0.0001), pretreatment PSA (P = 0.003), and clinical classification of T2c (P = 0.04) remained significant predictors of time to posttreatment PSA failure in multivariate analysis. CONCLUSIONS: The staging system described herein, which is based on cV(Ca) and PSA, may optimize patient selection for definitive local therapy and entry onto randomized clinical trials examining the use of adjuvant hormonal or chemotherapy in patients with clinically localized disease who present with PSA levels of 4-20 ng/mL. Validation of this staging system by other investigators is currently underway.

Antineoplastic Agents, Hormonal↗

Mammalian X chromosome inactivation.

X chromosome inactivation in mammals requires expression of the gene Xist, which maps to the X chromosome inactivation centre (Xic) and encodes an untranslated RNA. Truncation of Xist RNA by gene targeting is lethal for female embryos and prevents the inactivation of the X chromosome carrying the deletion. This indicates that Xist RNA is necessary for initiation and propagation of the inactivation process. Xist is transcribed from the inactive X and its expression is silenced by DNA methylation, suggesting that methylation is crucial for shielding the active X chromosome against the inactivation process. Gene transfer experiments using transgenes the size of yeast artificial chromosomes have determined that a 450 kb fragment of DNA carrying Xist acts as an inactivation centre and is sufficient for initiation, propagation and maintenance of the inactive state. The elements for counting and choosing X chromosomes are part of the transgene. We have shown that X inactivation is mediated by a post-translational mechanism, i.e. the stabilization of Xist RNA, rather than by the regulation of the Xist promoter.

Animals↗

Construction and evaluation of an attenuated vaccine for foot-and-mouth disease: difficulty adapting the leader proteinase-deleted strategy to the serotype O1 virus.

Over the last few years we have utilized a system to genetically engineer foot-and-mouth disease virus (FMDV) to produce live-attenuated vaccine candidates. These candidates have been generated in the genetic background of a tissue culture-adapted strain of serotype A12 virus. Based on this A12 system, we created a virus lacking the sequence encoding the leader (L) proteinase (Piccone et al., 1995), and demonstrated that this leaderless virus, A12-LLV2 was avirulent in bovine and swine, and could be used as an attenuated vaccine (Mason et al., 1997; Chinsangaram et al., 1998). The current study shows that a similar leader-deleted chimeric virus containing the genome of the type A12 virus with a substituted type O1 capsid coding region from a bovine-virulent virus can be constructed, and that the virus has low, but detectable virulence in swine. A second chimera specifying a tissue culture-adapted type O1 capsid lacking the RGD cell binding site, was avirulent in swine, but was not sufficiently immunogenic to provide protection from challenge. These results are described with respect to mechanisms of attenuation and antigen formation in live-attenuated virus-inoculated animals.

Amino Acid Substitution↗

Complement activation during major surgery: the effect of extracorporeal circuits and high-dose aprotinin.

OBJECTIVE: To assess the in vivo contribution to complement activation of an extracorporeal circuit and the use of high-dose aprotinin during major surgery. DESIGN: Sequential samples were obtained from 8 patients undergoing thoracic surgery, 20 patients undergoing orthotopic liver transplantation (OLT) using venovenous bypass, and 19 patients undergoing cardiac surgery using cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). INTERVENTION: The latter two groups were part of a randomized controlled trial of high-dose aprotinin. MEASUREMENTS: Total complement activation was measured with the hemolytic complement activity and the C3 activation-specific marker, C3d antigen. MAIN RESULTS: Complement activation did not occur during thoracic surgery. During OLT, C3d antigen levels, expressed as mean +/- standard deviation (SD), were elevated from baseline at skin closure (8.6 +/- 2.5 v 13.0 +/- 5.2 mg/L; p = 0.0082). During cardiac surgery, C3d antigen levels increased 10 minutes after the start of CPB (pre-CPB, 8.0 +/- 1.9 v 14.2 +/- 3.1 mg/L; p = 0.0001) and remained at greater than baseline values postoperatively (8.0 +/- 1.9 v 11.8 +/- 2.3 mg/L; p = 0.002). There was no difference in complement activation in those receiving high-dose aprotinin during OLT or cardiac surgery. Complement activation during cardiac surgery using extracorporeal circulation occurred to a greater extent than during OLT and thoracic surgery. Complement activation during cardiac surgery or OLT was not attenuated by the use of high-dose aprotinin.

Adolescent↗

Antibody response in mice inoculated with DNA expressing foot-and-mouth disease virus capsid proteins.

Candidate foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) DNA vaccines designed to produce viral capsids lacking infectious viral nucleic acid were evaluated. Plasmid DNAs containing a portion of the FMDV genome coding for the capsid precursor protein (P1-2A) and wild-type or mutant viral proteinase 3C (plasmids P12X3C or P12X3C-mut, respectively) were constructed. Cell-free translation reactions programmed with pP12X3C (wild-type 3C) and pP12X3C-mut produced a capsid precursor, but only the reactions programmed with the plasmid encoding the functional proteinase resulted in P1-2A processing and capsid formation. Baby hamster kidney (BHK) cells also produced viral capsid proteins when transfected with these plasmids. Plasmid P12X3C was administered to mice by intramuscular, intradermal, and epithelial (gene gun) inoculations. Anti-FMD virus (FMDV) antibodies were detected by radioimmunoprecipitation (RIP) and plaque reduction neutralization assays only in sera of mice inoculated by using a gene gun. When pP12X3C and pP12X3C-mut were inoculated into mice by using a gene gun, both plasmids elicited an antibody response detectable by RIP but only pP12X3C elicited a neutralizing antibody response. These results suggest that capsid formation in situ is required for effective immunization. Expression and stimulation of an immune response was enhanced by addition of an intron sequence upstream of the coding region, while addition of the FMDV internal ribosome entry site or leader proteinase (L) coding region either had no effect or reduced the immune response.

3C Viral Proteases↗

Mitogenicity of DNA from different organisms for murine B cells.

Recent evidence that DNA from bacteria causes polyclonal activation of mouse B cells raises the question of whether DNA from other organisms has similar properties. Extending prior studies on bacteria and insects, we show here that the capacity of DNA to stimulate B cells correlates closely with hypomethylation of DNA CpG dinucleotide motifs. Thus strong stimulation of B cells was seen with DNA from various organisms displaying little or no methylation of CpG motifs, i.e., yeast, nematodes, and molluscs in addition to bacteria and insects. For these organisms, DNA induced nearly all B cells (including small resting B cells) to up-regulate the activation marker, CD69, and caused many B cells to enter the cell cycle, indicative of polyclonal activation; this effect was not seen after selective methylation of CpG motifs (tested on yeast DNA). By contrast, no stimulation of B cells was seen with DNA from organisms whose CpG motifs are heavily methylated, i.e., various vertebrates (mammals, fish, and frogs) and plants (corn). Despite this correlation, DNA prepared from two murine cell lines exhibiting hypomethylation of CpG motifs caused little or no stimulation of B cells. Thus, the idea that the stimulatory properties of DNA correlate solely with the presence of unmethylated CpG motifs may be an oversimplification.

Animals↗

Equivalent 5-year bNED in select prostate cancer patients managed with surgery or radiation therapy despite exclusion of the seminal vesicles from the CTV.

PURPOSE: Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) failure free survival was determined for select prostate cancer patients managed definitively with external beam radiation therapy to the prostate only or radical retropubic prostatectomy. METHODS AND MATERIALS: A logistic regression multivariable analysis evaluating the variables of PSA, biopsy Gleason score, and clinical stage was used to evaluate the endpoint of pathologic seminal vesicle invasion (SVI) in 749 consecutive prostate cancer patients managed with a radical retropubic prostatectomy. In a subgroup of 332 surgically and 197 radiation managed patients who did not have the clinical predictors of SVI, PSA failure free survival (bNED) was determined. Comparisons were made using the log rank test between surgically and radiation managed patients in this subgroup. In this subgroup, radiation managed patients were treated to a median dose of 66 Gy (66-70 Gy) to the prostate only. RESULTS: The pretreatment PSA (> 10 ng/ml), biopsy Gleason score (> or = 7), and clinical stage (T2b, 2c, or 3) were found to be significant independent predictors (p < 0.001) of SVI. Only 2% of patients without any of these factors had SVI and 17% had extracapsular extension (15% microscopic; 2% macroscopic). In this subgroup the 5-year bNED rates were equivalent [84 vs. 89% (p = 0.67)] for surgically and radiation managed patients, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: Conventional dose external beam radiation therapy directed at the prostate alone resulted in 5-year bNED rates equivalent to surgery on retrospective comparison in patients with clinical stage T1,2a, PSA < or = 10 ng/ml, and biopsy Gleason < or = 6 prostate cancer.

Biopsy↗

Equivalent biochemical failure-free survival after external beam radiation therapy or radical prostatectomy in patients with a pretreatment prostate specific antigen of > 4-20 ng/ml.

PURPOSE: Biochemical failure-free survival stratified by the pretreatment prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and biopsy Gleason score (bGl) is determined for prostate cancer patients managed definitively with external beam radiation therapy or radical retropubic prostatectomy. METHODS AND MATERIALS: A Cox regression multivariable analysis evaluating the variables of PSA, bGl, and clinical stage was used to evaluate the end point of time to PSA failure in 867 and 757 consecutive prostate cancer patients managed definitively with external beam radiation therapy or radical retropubic prostatectomy, respectively. PSA failure-free survival was determined using Kaplan-Meier analysis. Comparisons were made using the log rank test. RESULTS: The pretreatment PSA, bGl, and clinical stage (T3,4 vs. T1,T2) were found to be independent predictors of time to post-treatment PSA failure for both surgically and radiation managed patients using Cox regression multivariable analysis. Patients with a pretreatment PSA of > 4 ng/ml and < or = 20 ng/ml could be classified into risk groups for time to post-therapy PSA failure: low = PSA > 4-10 ng/ml and bGl < or = 4; intermediate = PSA > 4-10 and bGl 5-7; or PSA > 10-20 ng/ml and bGl < or = 7; high = PSA > 4-20 ng/ml and bGl > or = 8. Two-year PSA failure-free survival for surgically managed and radiation-managed patients, respectively, were 98% vs. 92% (p = 0.45), 77% vs. 81% (p = 0.86), and 51% vs. 53% (p = 0.48) for patients at low, intermediate, and high risk for post-therapy PSA failure. CONCLUSIONS: There was no statistical difference in the 2-year PSA failure-free survival for potentially curable patients managed definitively with surgery or radiation therapy when a retrospective comparison stratifying for the pretreatment PSA and bGl was performed.

Disease-Free Survival↗

Germ-line passage is required for establishment of methylation and expression patterns of imprinted but not of nonimprinted genes.

Embryonic stem (ES) cells homozygous for a disruption of the DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferase gene (Dnmt) proliferate normally with their DNA highly demethylated but die upon differentiation. Expression of the wild-type Dnmt cDNA in mutant male ES cells caused an increase in methylation of bulk DNA and of the Xist and Igf2 genes to normal levels, but did not restore the methylation of the imprinted genes H19 and Igf2r. These cells differentiated normally in vitro and contributed substantially to adult chimeras. While the Xist gene was not expressed in the remethylated male ES cells, no restoration of the normal expression profile was seen for H19, Igf2r, or Igf2. This indicates that ES cells can faithfully reestablish normal methylation and expression patterns of nonimprinted genes but lack the ability to restore those of imprinted genes. Full restoration of monoallelic methylation and expression was imposed on H19, Igf2, and Igf2r upon germ-line transmission. These results are consistent with the presence of distinct de novo DNA methyltransferase activities during oogenesis and spermatogenesis, which specifically recognize imprinted genes but are absent in the postimplantation embryo and in ES cells.

Alleles↗

RTOG's first quality of life study--RTOG 90-20: a phase II trial of external beam radiation with etanidazole for locally advanced prostate cancer.

PURPOSE: To assess institutional and patient compliance with quality of life (QL) instruments in RTOG clinical trials. To assess feasibility of using the Functional Assessment Cancer Therapy (FACT), Sexual Adjustment Questionnaire (SAQ), and Changes in Urinary Function (CUF) QL instruments in a prostate clinical trial and to compare patient self-report of symptoms to medical professional ratings of the same symptoms using the RTOG acute toxicity rating scales. METHODS AND MATERIALS: Three self-assessment QL instruments, the FACT, the SAQ, and CUF, were to be administered to patients on a Phase II locally advanced prostate trial at specified time points. Specific instructions for both data managers and for patients on when, how, and why to fill out the questionnaires were included. RESULTS: Sixty-seven percent (24 out of 36) of patients accrued to RTOG 90-20 completed both the initial FACT and SAQ. Eighty-five percent completed FACT at end of RT and 73% at 3 months. Eighty-one percent completed SAQ at end of treatment, while 69% completed this form at 3 months. Compliance drops off thereafter. Seventy-five percent of patients who had their symptom of dysuria rated by a medical professional as 0 on the RTOG toxicity rating scale self-reported the same. Only 56% of patient self-reports on FACT regarding diarrhea were in agreement with the medical professional's RTOG rating of 0 toxicity. The measures were determined to be in moderate agreement when the patient evaluated a symptom as a 1 on the FACT and the medical professional rated the same symptom as a 0 on the RTOG toxicity rating scale. There was moderate agreement in 13% of patients with dysuria and 31% of patients with diarrhea. Low agreement occurred when the patient evaluated a symptom as a 2 or 3 on the FACT and the medical professional rated the same symptom as a 0 on the RTOG scale. Low agreement occurred in 13% of both patients reporting dysuria and diarrhea. Differences between how medical professionals and patients were able to rate erectile function make direct comparisons difficult, but the trend towards significant discrepancies is still noteworthy. CONCLUSIONS: Quality of life assessments are necessary and attainable in RTOG clinical trials. Compliance rates for both institutional and patient participation were acceptable at initial and 3 month follow-up. Reasons for noncompliance were predominantly institution related and not patient related. Strategies to address both institution and patient compliance have been developed and implemented within the RTOG. Serious disagreement between patient self-reports of symptoms on the FACT QL scale and medical professional ratings on the RTOG acute toxicity rating scales of the same symptoms was 13% at 3 months follow-up. This warrants continued use of QL self-assessments in clinical trials.

Adenocarcinoma↗