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Biomedical subjects

B Weber

Publications and source records attributed to B Weber.

At least 55 records · Page 3Linked to original sources

[Treatment errors of metacarpal fractures. An analysis of expert testimony of the "Committee for Medical Malpractice" of the North Rhine Physician's Council].

A large number of publications notwithstanding, there are no clear guidelines regarding the treatment of metacarpal fractures. Some authors believe that even severely dislocated fractures should not be surgically fixated. This paper analyzes the forensic problem on the basis of court rulings in Germany. Seventeen evaluations of metacarpal fractures conducted by the commission on medical malpractice of the physicians' council in North Rhein were analyzed and common mistakes were listed. The average age of the eight male and nine female patients was 41.9 years. The fifth metacarpal bone (MB) was affected eight times, the fourth MB four times, and the first MB twice. The second MB and third MB were affected once each. Surgery was performed in nine cases, while the conservative approach was taken eight times. An independent expert determined medical malpractice in 13 cases (76%). In 10 of these 13 cases, the symptoms the patients exhibited were linked to medical malpractice. In the 13 cases of medical malpractice there were 5 cases with technically insufficient osteosynthesis, 4 cases of uncorrected dislocation, 2 false diagnoses, and 2 false immobilizations. An independent expert identified a link to the symptoms in three of the four cases of uncorrected dislocation. These were an anatomically nonreduced fracture with joint involvement, a fracture with a dislocation of 50 degrees, and a fracture with rotation dislocation. Cases where fractures healed with severe dislocation or immobilization in a wrong position or for a too long a period are common but avoidable mistakes in the treatment of metacarpal fractures.

Adult↗

Cannabinoid CB1 receptor-mediated inhibition of acetylcholine release in the brain of NMRI, CD-1 and C57BL/6J mice.

Cannabinoid CB1 receptors occur as presynaptic receptors producing inhibition of neurotransmitter release. To elucidate their physiological role, experiments on tissues from CB1 receptor knockout mice would be helpful. We studied whether CB1 receptor-mediated inhibition of acetylcholine release is detectable in the brain of NMRI mice and of CD-1 and C57BL/6J mice (the latter two strains representing the wild-type strains of the two CB1 receptor knockout mouse models). Brain slices preincubated with [3H]choline were superfused and tritium overflow was evoked electrically (3 Hz) or by introduction of Ca2+ into Ca2+-free K+-rich medium (35 mM) containing tetrodotoxin. The eletrically evoked tritium overflow from NMRI mouse hippocampal slices was inhibited (maximally by 60%) by the cannabinoid receptor agonists CP-55,940 and WIN 55,212-2 but not affected by WIN 55,212-3 (the inactive enantiomer of WIN 55,212-2; pEC50=7.9, 7.4 and <5.5). The concentration-response curve of WIN 55,212-2 was shifted to the right by the CB1 receptor antagonist SR 141716 (apparent pA2=8.6). Compared to hippocampal slices from NMRI mice, WIN 55,212-2 1 microM inhibited the electrically evoked overflow (1) from cortical slices from NMRI mice to a lesser extent and from striatal slices not at all, (2) from hippocampal slices from CD-1 and C57BL/6J mice to an identical extent and (3) from hippocampal slices from Sprague-Dawley rats to at least the same extent. SR 141716 0.32 microM abolished the effect of WIN 55,212-2 1 microM in hippocampal slices from NMRI, CD-1 and C57BL/6J mice and in cortical slices from NMRI mice. The electrically evoked tritium overflow from NMRI mouse hippocampal slices was also inhibited by the muscarinic receptor agonist oxotremorine (maximum effect of 85%; pEC50=6.5) and this effect was antagonized by the muscarinic receptor antagonist AF-DX 384 (apparent pA2=8.3). The Ca2+-evoked tritium overflow from NMRI mouse hippocampal slices was inhibited by WIN 55,212-2 in a manner sensitive to SR 141716. In conclusion, the cholinergic axon terminals of the NMRI mouse hippocampus are endowed with presynaptic CB1 receptors. Such receptors are also detectable in the hippocampus of CD-1 and C57BL/6J mice. The maximum extent of the CB1 receptor-mediated inhibition of acetylcholine release is lower than the maximum effect mediated via the autoreceptor.

Acetylcholine↗

Absence of point mutations within the AML-1 gene in patients with MDS/AML and loss of chromosome 5q or 7.

There is increasing evidence that the acute myeloid leukemia 1 (AML-1) gene plays a versatile role in hematopoiesis, and its inactivation has been described in various hematopoetic disorders, e.g., leukemia or familial thrombocytopenia. AML-1 can be affected by various mechanisms, such as chromosomal translocations or point mutations. On the other hand, the specific underlying molecular lesions in myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) or leukemias with aberrations of chromosomes 5q or 7, respectively, are largely unknown. Despite extraordinary scientific effort no specific genes on chromosome 5q or 7, which act as tumor suppressors, have definitely been identified. Therefore, it has recently been speculated that the AML-1 gene, even if distantly located on chromosome 21q22, may be involved in leukemogenesis in patients with aberrations at chromosome 5q or monosomy 7 [2]. Therefore, we sequenced all exons of the AML-1 gene in 15 patients with MDS/AML and deleted chromosome 5q or 7q, respectively. None of the patients analyzed had any AML-1 mutation.

Adolescent↗

Human cytomegalovirus infection: diagnostic potential of recombinant antigens for cytomegalovirus antibody detection.

Recombinant antigen-based enzyme immunoassays (EIAs) for the detection of human cytomegalovirus (HCMV) specific antibody are believed to yield a higher sensitivity and specificity than virus lysate EIAs. The aim of the present study was to evaluate the accuracy of newly established HCMV assays (Copalis CMV Multiplex, Sorin; Cobas Core CMV IgG and IgM EIAs, Roche Diagnostics; Anti-HCMV recombinant IgG, gB-IgG, IgM and IgA, Biotest; and ETI-CYTOK-G PLUS and M reverse PLUS, Sorin) based on recombinant antigens and/or virus lysate for laboratory diagnosis of HCMV infection. For the assessment of sensitivity, follow-up samples from patients suffering from active HCMV infection were tested. Testing a large number of potentially interfering samples challenged the specificity of the assays. There was no statistically significant difference in the performance of HCMV IgG assays. The results were more heterogeneous for the detection of serological markers of active infection (HCMV IgM, HCMV IgA and anti-CM2). The sensitivities of the different assays ranged between 40.5 and 71.4%. A variable number (17.8-1.7%) of false-positive results were obtained among potentially interfering serum samples. Two of the recombinant antigen based assays showed a high degree of interference with EBV VCA-IgM-positive sera. The best performance was achieved with ETI-CYTOK-M reverse PLUS since it combined the highest sensitivity with specificity. Commercially available assays based on recombinant antigens showed, overall, a poorer performance than the virus lysate EIA.

Antibodies, Viral↗

Donepezil-induced REM sleep augmentation enhances memory performance in elderly, healthy persons.

Previous research in younger individuals has shown that acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may enhance REM sleep. The present study indicates that in the elderly, donepezil, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, also exerts a marked effect on REM sleep parameters--percentage of REM sleep and REM density were increased whereas REM latency was reduced. In addition, we also found a correlation between memory performance and REM sleep. Based on these findings, we conclude that there is an interrelationship between cognitive performance and amount of REM sleep in elderly humans as has been previously shown in animals and young adults.

Aged↗

The closely related POU family transcription factors Brn-3a and Brn-3b are expressed in distinct cell types in the testis.

Although the Brn-3a and Brn-3b POU family transcription factors were originally identified in neuronal cells, their expression in some non neuronal cell types has previously been reported. Here we report that Brn-3a and Brn-3b are also expressed in the testis with expression of each factor being observed at distinct stages of germ cell development. Thus, Brn-3a is expressed in spermatogonia whereas Brn-3b expression is observed in post-meiotic spermatids. In agreement with this, Brn-3a expression is detectable much earlier than that of Brn-3b in testes derived from sexually immature postnatal animals. Similarly, Brn-3b expression is absent in knock out mice lacking a functional CREM transcription factor in which the later stages of germ cell development do not occur, whereas Brn-3a expression is observed at similar levels in the testes of these knock out mice. Interestingly, the cellular pattern of Brn-3a expression during germ cell development coincides with that of the BRCA-1 anti-oncogene. Consistent with the possibility that Brn-3a may regulate expression of BRCA-1 in the testis, we have shown that Brn-3a can strongly activate the BRCA-1 promoter in co-transfection experiments whereas Brn-3b does not have this effect. Hence, as observed in neuronal cells, Brn-3a and Brn-3b may play distinct and important functional roles in the regulation of gene expression during germ cell development.

Animals↗

Enhanced acetylcholine release in the hippocampus of cannabinoid CB(1) receptor-deficient mice.

We examined whether acetylcholine release in the hippocampus and striatum and noradrenaline release in the hippocampus is altered in CB(1) receptor-deficient mice. The electrically evoked tritium overflow from hippocampal slices preincubated with [(3)H]-choline was increased by about 100% in CB(1)(-/-) compared to CB(1)(+/+) mice whereas the electrically evoked tritium overflow from striatal slices preincubated with [(3)H]-choline and from hippocampal slices preincubated with [(3)H]-noradrenaline did not differ. The cannabinoid receptor agonist, WIN 55,212-2, inhibited, and the CB(1) receptor antagonist, SR 141716, facilitated, the evoked tritium overflow from hippocampal slices (preincubated with [(3)H]-choline) from CB(1)(+/+) as opposed to CB(1)(-/-) mice. Both drugs did not affect the evoked tritium overflow from striatal slices (preincubated with [(3)H]-choline) and from hippocampal slices (preincubated with [(3)H]-noradrenaline) from CB(1)(+/+) and CB(1)(-/-) mice. The selective increase in acetylcholine release in CB(1)(-/-) mice may indicate that the presynaptic CB(1) receptors on the cholinergic neurones of the mouse hippocampus are tonically activated and/or constitutively active in vivo.

Acetylcholine↗

Identification of the dopamine autoreceptor in the guinea-pig retina as D(2) receptor using novel subtype-selective antagonists.

1. Dopamine release in the retina is subject to modulation via autoreceptors, which belong to the D(2) receptor family (encompassing the D(2), D(3) and D(4) receptors). The aim of the present study was to determine the receptor subtype (D(2) vs D(3)) involved in the inhibition of dopamine release in guinea-pig retinal discs, using established (haloperidol, (S)-nafadotride) and novel dopamine receptor antagonists (ST-148, ST-198). 2. hD(2L) and hD(3) receptors were expressed in CHO cells and the pK(i) values determined in binding studies with [(125)I]-iodosulpride were: haloperidol 9.22 vs 8.54; ST-148 7.85 vs 6.60; (S)-nafadotride 8.52 vs 9.51; ST-198 6.14 vs 7.92. 3. The electrically evoked tritium overflow from retinal discs preincubated with [(3)H]-noradrenaline (which represents quasi-physiological dopamine release) was inhibited by the dopamine receptor agonists B-HT 920 (talipexole) and quinpirole (maximally by 82 and 71%; pEC(50) 5.80 and 5.83). The concentration-response curves of these agonists were shifted to the right by haloperidol (apparent pA(2) 8.69 and 8.23) and ST-148 (7.52 and 7.66). (S)-Nafadotride 0.01 microM and ST-198 0.32 microM did not affect the concentration-response curve of B-HT 920. 4. The dopamine autoreceptor in the guinea-pig retina can be classified as a D(2) receptor. ST-148 and ST-198 show an improved selectivity for D(2) and D(3) receptors when compared to haloperidol and (S)-nafadotride, respectively.

Animals↗

Modulation of dopamine release in the guinea-pig retina by G(i)- but not by G(s)- or G(q)-protein-coupled receptors.

The modulation of dopamine release from the guinea-pig retina was studied using maximally effective concentrations of 10 agonists acting on G(i)-, G(s)- or G(q)-protein-coupled receptors (PCRs). Retinal discs were preincubated with [(3)H]noradrenaline and superfused; tritium overflow was evoked electrically. The following compounds acting on G(i)-PCRs reduced the tritium overflow, which represents quasi-physiological dopamine release under the experimental conditions of our study: the dopamine and alpha(2)-adrenoceptor agonist B-HT 920 by 95%, the muscarinic agonist oxotremorine by 96%, melatonin by 94%, the cannabinoid agonist WIN 55,212-2 by 71% and histamine by 66%. Tritium overflow was not affected by serotonin or by agonists acting on G(s)-PCRs (ACTH1-24 and the beta-adrenoceptor agonist procaterol) and G(q)-PCRs (angiotensin II and bradykinin). The effects of B-HT 920, oxotremorine and melatonin were studied in more detail using appropriate antagonists. The inhibitory effect of a submaximally active concentration of B-HT 920 was counteracted by the dopamine D(2/3) antagonist haloperidol but not affected by the alpha(2)-adrenoceptor antagonist phentolamine. The muscarinic antagonist atropine shifted to the right the concentration-response curve of oxotremorine (pA(2) 8.7) and the melatonin MT(2) antagonist 4-P-PDOT produced a rightward shift of the concentration-response curve of melatonin (pA(2) 10.6). Melatonin was also studied in superfused brain slices (from the guinea-pig) preincubated with [(3)H]noradrenaline. The electrically evoked tritium overflow in cerebrocortical, hippocampal and hypothalamic slices (representing quasi-physiological noradrenaline release) and in striatal slices (representing quasi-physiological dopamine release) was not affected by melatonin at a concentration that causes the maximum effect in retinal discs. In conclusion, dopamine release in the guinea-pig retina is inhibited via G(i)-PCRs including dopamine (D(2/3)), muscarinic and melatonin (MT(2)) receptors but not affected via any of the G(s)- or G(q)-PCRs under study. Unlike in the retina, melatonin fails to inhibit monoamine release in four brain regions of the guinea-pig.

Animals↗

Effects of vigabatrin on brain GABA+/CR signals in patients with epilepsy monitored by 1H-NMR-spectroscopy: responder characteristics.

PURPOSE: Vigabatrin (VGB) is a new antiepileptic drug that increases the human brain gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) level by irreversibly inhibiting GABA transaminase. Although some patients respond to VGB with a significant seizure reduction, others do not. The aim of this study was to identify possible responders before or in an early phase of VGB treatment by measuring the GABA and homocarnosine contaminated with macromolecules/creatine and phosphocreatine ratio (GABA+/Cr) signal by means of proton-nuclear magnetic resonance (1H NMR) spectroscopy. METHODS: Measurements were performed immediately before and after a titration period of 1 month (2 g/day during the past 2 weeks). A third measurement followed a maintenance period of 3 months (2 or 3 g/day). In 14 patients with drug-resistant temporal lobe epilepsy and 3 patients with occipital lobe epilepsy, GABA+/Cr was measured in the ipsilateral (i.e., epileptogenic) hemisphere and contralateral (i.e., nonepileptogenic) hemisphere in a volume of 8 cm3. RESULTS: Depending on the therapeutic efficacy of VGB, we defined three groups: (a) full responders (n = 7), (b) nonresponders (n = 7), and (c) partial responders (n = 3). The nonresponders had no significant change in the GABA+/Cr signal during the treatment compared with baseline. The full responders had a significant increase of the GABA+/Cr signal during the whole treatment phase and a lower ipsilateral level at baseline. The partial responders had also a lowered ipsilateral GABA+/Cr signal at baseline and an increase during treatment but a decrease when the seizures started again. CONCLUSIONS: Responders to VGB could be identified by a lower ipsilateral baseline GABA+/Cr signal and a steeper increase during VGB treatment. However, it was not possible to predict the duration of the response (full versus partial responder) with these criteria.

Adolescent↗

Double-blind randomised placebo-controlled phase III study of an E. coli extract plus 5-fluorouracil versus 5-fluorouracil in patients with advanced colorectal cancer.

The primary aim of this study was to evaluate the toxicity (mucositis, diarrhea and leucopenia) of a therapy with 5-fluorouracil (CAS 51-21-8; 5-FU) plus an E. coli extract (LC-Extract, Laves coli extract, Colibiogen inject, cell-free soluble fraction from lysed E. coli, Laves strain) in comparison with 5-FU plus placebo. Secondary endpoints included general toxicity, response rate according to WHO, survival time and quality of life. 164 patients with advanced colorectal cancer were enrolled in this randomised, placebo-controlled, double-blind, multicenter phase III study. The treatment consisted of 0.167 ml/kg/d LC-Extract or placebo followed by 500-750 mg/m2/d 5-FU on five consecutive days, repeated every three weeks for up to six treatment cycles. 158 (77 verum, 81 placebo) patients were evaluable for toxicity, 144 (72 verum, 72 placebo) evaluable for response. The therapy with LC-Extract was well tolerated. Adverse events that occurred during the study were mainly judged as 5-FU- or tumor-related. Toxicity from treatment with 600 mg/m2/d 5-FU in both treatment groups was very low. After treatment with 750 mg/m2/d 5-FU patients in the placebo-group experienced a higher CTC toxicity than in the LC-Extract groups. Remission rate and survival time showed a slight trend in favour of LC-Extract. These results suggest a positive benefit-risk ratio of the additional application of LC-Extract to 5-FU in the treatment of advanced colorectal cancer especially for administration of high doses of 5-FU.

Adolescent↗

Quantitation of the major fungal allergens, Alt a 1 and Asp f 1, in commercial allergenic products.

BACKGROUND: Alternaria is one of the most important fungi associated with allergic disease, whereas Aspergillus fumigatus is involved in a broad spectrum of pulmonary diseases. Currently, fungal extracts used for diagnosis in the United States are unstandardized, and their allergenic content cannot be compared directly. OBJECTIVE: The goal of this study was to compare the variability of major allergen levels among US allergenic products derived from fungi: specifically, Alt a 1 levels in Alternaria alternata extracts, and Asp f 1 levels in A fumigatus extracts. METHODS: A novel 2-site monoclonal antibody ELISA was used for measuring Alt a 1 using recombinant Alt a 1 as a standard. Asp f 1 was also measured by ELISA. Allergenic products produced by 8 US manufacturers over a 2-year period were compared, as were multiple lots produced by a single company. RESULTS: Alt a 1 levels in Alternaria extracts from 8 companies produced in 1998 and 1999 ranged from less than 0.01 to 6.09 microg/mL (mean 1.4 +/- 1.6 microg/mL, n = 15). In general, Alt a 1 levels were consistent within and between companies (1.4 +/- 1.1 microg/mL, n = 27), with 21 of 32 (66%) of all extracts tested containing 0.7 to 2 microg/mL Alt a 1. Aspergillus extracts showed much greater variability in Asp f 1 levels, with extracts from 8 companies containing from less than 0.1 to 64 microg/mL Asp f 1 (mean 16.3 +/- 23.9 microg/mL, n = 15). Overall variability was greater for Aspergillus products within and between manufacturers (22 +/- 22 microg/mL Asp f 1, n = 20). CONCLUSIONS: ELISA-based assays for specific allergens showed greater consistency among allergenic products derived from Alternaria than from Aspergillus. These assays should facilitate improved quality control and standardization of fungal allergen extracts and lead to the development of more consistent products for clinical use.

Allergens↗

Progesterone receptor variant increases ovarian cancer risk in BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation carriers who were never exposed to oral contraceptives.

Oral contraceptives have been shown to be protective against hereditary ovarian cancer. The variant progesterone receptor allele named PROGINS is characterized by an Alu insertion into intron G and two additional mutations in exons 4 and 5. The PROGINS allele codes for a progesterone receptor with increased stability and increased hormone-induced transcriptional activity. We studied the role of the PROGINS allele as a modifying gene in hereditary breast and ovarian cancer. The study included 195 BRCA1 and BRCA2 carriers with a prior diagnosis of ovarian cancer, 392 carriers with a diagnosis of breast cancer and 249 carriers with neither cancer. Fifty-eight women had both forms of cancer. Five hundred and ninety-five women had a BRCA1 mutation and 183 women had a BRCA2 mutation. Overall, there was no association between disease status and the presence of the PROGINS allele. Information on oral contraception use was available for 663 of the 778 carriers of BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations. Among the 449 subjects with a history of oral contraceptive use (74 cases and 365 controls), no modifying effect of PROGINS was observed [odds ratio (OR) 0.8; 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.5-1.3]. Among the 214 carriers with no past exposure to oral contraceptives, the presence of one or more PROGINS alleles was associated with an OR of 2.4 for ovarian cancer, compared to women without ovarian cancer and with no PROGINS allele (P = 0.004; 95% CI 1.4-4.3). The association was present after adjustment for ethnic group and for year of birth.

Adult↗

Clinical experience with the Vibrant Soundbridge implant device.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the full degree and range of benefits provided by the Vibrant Soundbridge (VSB; Symphonix Devices, Inc., San Jose, CA, U.S.A.) and analyze pre-and postoperative results of audiologic tests. STUDY DESIGN: Single-subject study with each subject serving as his or her own control. SETTING: Multicenter clinical study conducted at 10 centers in Europe. PATIENTS: 47 patients who met the selection criteria for participation in the study. INTERVENTIONS: Implantation of the VSB direct-drive middle ear hearing device. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Average change in unaided thresholds with the patient wearing headphones at each frequency pre-and postsurgery was measured. A mean threshold change less than 5 dB across all frequencies was considered clinically nonsignificant. RESULTS: 47 patients had successful surgery for implantation and fitting with the VSB device. CONCLUSION: The VSB is a new middle ear implant device that can be used safely in the treatment of patients with moderate to severe sensorineural hearing loss.

Acoustic Stimulation↗

Mosaic genes and mosaic chromosomes: intra- and interspecies genomic variation of Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Streptococcus pneumoniae remains a major causative agent of serious human diseases. The worldwide increase of antibiotic resistant strains revealed the importance of horizontal gene transfer in this pathogen, a scenario that results in the modulation of the species-specific gene pool. We investigated genomic variation in 20 S. pneumoniae isolates representing major antibiotic-resistant clones and 10 different capsular serotypes. Variation was scored as decreased hybridization signals visualized on a high-density oligonucleotide array representing 1,968 genes of the type 4 reference strain KNR.7/87. Up to 10% of the genes appeared altered between individual isolates and the reference strain; variability within clones was below 2.1%. Ten gene clusters covering 160 kb account for half of the variable genes. Most of them are associated with transposases and are assumed to be part of a flexible gene pool within the bacterial population; other variable loci include mosaic genes encoding antibiotic resistance determinants and gene clusters related to bacteriocin production. Genomic comparison between S. pneumoniae and commensal Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus oralis strains indicates distinct antigenic profiles and suggests a smooth transition between these species, supporting the validity of the microarray system as an epidemiological and diagnostic tool.

Alleles↗

Evaluation of a dipstick test (Allergodip-Latex) for in vitro diagnosis of natural rubber latex allergy.

BACKGROUND: IgE-mediated hypersensitivity to latex has been recognized as an increasing health problem with far-reaching consequences for patients, regarding both their occupational situation and safety in medical care. Therefore, a correct diagnosis of natural rubber latex (NRL) allergy is essential. The purpose of the study was to evaluate sensitivity and specificity of several established diagnostic methods for NRL allergy (in vitro assays and skin prick test) in relation to a new semiquantitative dipstick test (Allergodip-Latex, Allergopharma) as a screening test for NRL allergy. METHODS: Data obtained with quantitative assays including Pharmacia CAP System(FEIA), DPC-AlaSTAT and Magic Lite were compared with the dipstick test results in latex-sensitized (n = 151) and nonsensitized persons (n = 232). In addition these in vitro findings were related to clinical symptoms after exposure to latex and skin prick test results with a panel of different latex allergen extracts. RESULTS: When comparing sensitivity and specificity of all in vitro assays relative to skin prick test results the Pharmacia CAP System (FEIA) had the highest sensitivity in the range of 90%. Sensitivity of the other in vitro assays was in the range of 73.7-74.9%, specificity varied from 85.3 to 89.8%. A diagnostic standard was defined in terms of at least three corresponding test results out of all diagnostic methods (in vitro assays and skin prick test). The sensitivity and specificity of each diagnostic test were determined relative to this diagnostic standard. Hereby the Allergodip test results showed a sensitivity of 91% and a specificity of 93%. CONCLUSION: The dipstick test results are in line with the data of the other in vitro assays. In contrast to other in vitro assays the dipstick test requires no further laboratory equipment and is easy to perform.

Humans↗

The glutamate antagonist riluzole and its effects upon basal and stress-induced activity of the human hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenocortical system in elderly subjects.

There is preclinical evidence that CRH is released in response to a glutamatergic stimulation. However, it is not clear, whether glutamate plays a role in the physiological stress response. We tested whether the antiglutamatergic drug riluzole dampens the response of the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenocortical (HPA) system to both a mental and a physical stressor. Nine male elderly healthy subjects received placebo and 150 mg riluzole for 2 days in a randomized balanced order. Blood was withdrawn every 15 min for estimation of cortisol and ACTH from 14.00 to 20.00 h. Between 16.00 and 16.45 h, the subjects were subjected to a cognitive challenge paradigm. Further, between 19.02 and 19.15 an individually adapted physical stress test was performed. After riluzole treatment, baseline ACTH and cortisol concentrations were unchanged when compared to placebo treatment. Also, after the mental stressor, there was no difference between both treatment conditions. In contrast, the cortisol (riluzole vs. placebo: 148 +/- 60 vs. 183 +/- 98 nmol/l) and ACTH response (20.2 +/- 11.9 vs. 40.7 +/- 61.9 pmol/l) to the physical stressor tended to be lower after riluzole pretreatment. In conclusion, the antiglutamatergic drug riluzole did not have any effects upon HPA system activity under baseline and cognitive-stress-induced conditions in elderly subjects. However, a trend for dampening the endocrine response to physical stress emerged.

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone↗