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B Seifert

Publications and source records attributed to B Seifert.

At least 55 records · Page 3Linked to original sources
PubMed2001

Chronic beta-blocker therapy improves outcome and reduces treatment costs in chronic type B aortic dissection.

OBJECTIVES: To compare the medical treatment of chronic type B aortic dissection with beta-blockers versus other antihypertensive treatments in terms of their requirement for surgical intervention and treatment costs. METHODS: Case records of the 130 patients treated for aortic dissection type B in this unit between 1988 and 1997 were reviewed. Seventy-eight of 130 patients with chronic dissection have received isolated medical treatment. Seventy-one of 78 patients were discharged alive. Fifty-one of 71 received beta-blocker treatment, 20/71 were treated with other antihypertensive drugs. RESULTS: Surgery for aortic dissection became necessary in 20/71 patients (28%) during follow-up (mean, 4.2 years): 10/51 in the beta-blocker group and 9/20 in the other antihypertensive drug group. The freedom from subsequent aortic operation was 80 and 47%, respectively (P=0.001). Indications for emergency surgery were increased aortic diameter (79%), symptomatic aortic aneurysm (11%), and renal artery hypoperfusion (5%). The median hospitalization time during follow-up (dissection-related) was 2 days for patients who received beta-blockers and 16 days for patients who received other antihypertensive drug treatments (P=0.001). The cost of treatment/patient per year amounted to 644 and 12748 euros, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: A substantial proportion of patients with chronic type B dissection who receive initial medical management will later need surgery. Long-term treatment with beta-blockers reduces the progression of aortic dilatation, the incidence of subsequent hospital admissions, as well as the incidence of late dissection-related aortic procedures and the cost of treatment. Patients with chronic type B dissection need, in addition to frequent follow-up of aortic diameter, continuous treatment with beta-blocking agents.

Adrenergic beta-Antagonists↗
PubMed2001

Myopexy (Faden) results in more postoperative vomiting after strabismus surgery in children.

BACKGROUND: Strabismus correction in children is associated with a high incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting. The purpose of this prospective, double-blind study was to examine the influence of the surgical method for correction of squint on the incidence of postoperative vomiting. METHODS: One hundred and twenty consecutive children aged 2-12 years, scheduled for elective strabismus surgery, were enrolled in this prospective, double-blind study. A standardised total intravenous anaesthesia was given to all children. The development of perioperative oculocardiac reflex was noted and the number of episodes of vomiting during the first 48 h postoperatively was recorded. At the completion of the study, the children who were operated with myopexy according to Faden, were allocated to a Faden group, those without a myopexy to the non-Faden group. All the patients included in this study were operated on by the same surgeon with standardised techniques. RESULTS: The Faden group was younger, lighter and the operation time was longer (P<0.05). The incidence of vomiting was greater in the Faden group; 53% versus 12% (P<0.05). The incidence of oculocardiac reflex was similar in both groups; 40% in the Faden versus 28% in the non-Faden group, respectively. The total dose of propofol and alfentanil was similar between the groups. Requirement of analgesics for postoperative pain was similar in both groups. The only independent risk factor for postoperative vomiting was the Faden operation. CONCLUSION: The surgical method used for strabismus correction in children has a great influence on the incidence of postoperative vomiting. The Faden operation is associated with a very high incidence of postoperative vomiting; this particular group of patients has to be considered as a high risk group for postoperative vomiting and deserves an antiemetic prophylaxis.

Alfentanil↗
PubMed2001

Clonidine decreases propofol requirements during anaesthesia: effect on bispectral index.

Assessment of the effect of clonidine on depth of anaesthesia is difficult because clonidine combines analgesic, sedative and direct haemodynamic effects. We thus evaluated the influence of clonidine on the bispectral index (BIS) and its potential dose-sparing effect on propofol. After induction of anaesthesia with target-controlled infusion of propofol and obtaining an unchanged bispectral index (pre-BIS), clonidine 4 microg kg(-1) or placebo was administered randomly to 50 patients in a double-blind manner. Subsequently, if there was a decrease in BIS we reduced the target concentration of propofol until pre-BIS was reached. The pre-BIS was maintained and a remifentanil infusion was added during surgery. The courses of the BIS, heart rate and blood pressure were recorded and the total amounts of intra-operative propofol and remifentanil were determined. Assessment of implicit memory during anaesthesia was performed with an auditory implicit memory test consisting of item sequences. Administration of clonidine resulted in a decrease in the BIS from 45 (SD 4) to 40 (6) (P<0.001), which allowed a reduction of propofol target concentration from 3.3 (0.6) to 2.7 (0.7) microg ml(-1) (P<0.001) and measured propofol concentration from 2.9 (0.6) to 2.5 (0.7) kg ml(-1) (P=0.009) in order to maintain the pre-BIS value. During subsequent surgery, propofol requirements were reduced by 20% (P=0.002) in the clonidine group and a similar amount of remifentanil was used in each group. The increase in anaesthetic depth given by clonidine can therefore be measured with bispectral EEG analysis and allows reduction of the propofol dose to achieve a specific depth of anaesthesia.

Adjuvants, Anesthesia↗
PubMed2001

Isolated reduction of haematocrit does not compromise in vitro blood coagulation.

Low haematocrit values are generally well tolerated in terms of oxygen transport but a low haematocrit might interfere with blood coagulation. We thus sampled 60 ml of blood in 30 healthy volunteers. The blood was centrifuged for 30 min at 2000 g and separated into plasma, which contained the platelet fraction, and packed red blood cells. The blood was subsequently reconstituted by combining the entire plasma fraction with a mixture of packed red blood cells, 0.9% saline, so that the final haematocrit was either 40, 30, 20, or 10%. Blood coagulation was assessed by computerized Thrombelastograph analysis. Data were compared using repeated measures analysis of variance and post-hoc paired t-tests with Bonferroni correction. Decreasing the haematocrit from 40 to 10% resulted in a shortening of reaction time (r) and coagulation time (k), and an increase in angle alpha, maximum amplitude (MA) and clot strength (G) (all P<0.02). This pattern represents acceleration of blood coagulation with low haematocrit values. The isolated reduction in haematocrit, therefore, does not compromise in vitro blood coagulation.

Adult↗
PubMed2001

Configuration and localization of the nipple-areola complex in men.

The causes of bilateral absence of the nipple-areola complex in men are seldom congenital, but attributable rather to destruction as a result of trauma, or after mastectomy in female-to-male transsexuals and in male breast cancer, or after the correction of extreme bilateral gynecomastia. Such a bilateral loss becomes a major reconstructive challenge with respect to the configuration and localization of a new nipple-areola complex. Because there is very little information available in the literature, we carried out a cross-sectional study on the configuration and localization of the nipple-areola complex in men.A total of 100 healthy men aged 20 to 36 years were examined under standardized conditions. The first part of the study dealt with the configuration of the nipple-areola complex (dimensions, round or oval shape). The second part concentrated on the localization of the complex on the thoracic wall with respect to anatomic landmarks and in correlation to various parameters such as weight and height of the body, circumference of the thorax, length of sternum, and position in the intercostal space. Of the 100 subjects examined, 91 had oval and seven had a round nipple-areola complex. An asymmetry between the right and the left side was found in two cases. The mean ratio of the horizontal/vertical diameter of an oval nipple-areola complex was 27:20 mm and the mean diameter for a round nipple-areola complex was 23 mm. The center of the nipple-areola complex was in the fourth intercostal space in 75 percent and in the fifth intercostal space in 23 percent of the subjects. To localize the nipple-areola complex on the thoracic wall de novo, at least two reproducible measurements proved to be necessary, composed of a horizontal line (distance from the midsternal line to the nipple = A) and a vertical line (distance from the sternal notch to the intersection of line A, = B). The closest correlation for the horizontal distance A was given by the circumference of the thorax: A = 2.4 cm + [0.09 x circumference of thorax (cm)], (r = 0.68). The best correlation to calculate the vertical distance B was found using the distance A and the length of the sternum: B = 1.2 cm + [0.28 x length of sternum (cm)] + [0.1 x circumference of thorax (cm)], (R = 0.50). In cases of bilateral absence, we recommend creating an oval nipple-areola complex in men. The appropriate localization can be calculated by means of two simple equations derived from the circumference of the thorax and the length of the sternum.

Adult↗
PubMed2001

Trypsinogen gene mutations in patients with chronic or recurrent acute pancreatitis.

Three-point mutations (R117H, N211, A16V) within the cationic trypsinogen gene have been identified in patients with hereditary pancreatitis (HP). A genetic background has also been discussed for idiopathic juvenile chronic pancreatitis (IJCP), which closely mimicks the clinical pattern of HP, and alcoholic chronic pancreatitis because only a small number of heavy drinkers develop pancreatitis. This prompted us to screen 104 patients in our well-defined pancreatitis cohort for the currently known cationic trypsinogen gene mutations. The R117H mutation was detected in seven patients (six patients of two clinically classified HP families, one patient with clinically classified IJCP) and the A16V mutation in one IJCP patient. No cationic trypsinogen gene mutations were found in the remaining 96 patients with chronic and recurrent acute pancreatitis of various etiologies. Our results demonstrate the need for genetic testing to exclude HP, particularly in the presence of an atypical or unknown family history. In addition, cationic trypsinogen gene mutations are no predisposing factor in patients with chronic and recurrent acute pancreatitis of different etiologies.

Acute Disease↗
PubMed2001

Mutations of the cystic fibrosis gene in patients with chronic pancreatitis.

OBJECTIVE: Several studies have reported an increased frequency of cystic fibrosis gene mutations in idiopathic but not in alcoholic chronic pancreatitis. The impact of cystic fibrosis gene mutations on the long-term course of chronic pancreatitis has not been analyzed. The aim of our study was to determine the frequency of cystic fibrosis gene mutations in patients with chronic pancreatitis with long-term follow-up and to see whether patients with mutations have a clinically different natural course compared to those without mutations. METHODS: Eighty two patients with chronic pancreatitis and 11 patients with recurrent acute pancreatitis of our well defined pancreatitis cohort were screened for the 31 most common cystic fibrosis gene mutations. The impact of cystic fibrosis gene mutations on the long-term course of chronic pancreatitis was assessed. RESULTS: A cystic fibrosis gene mutation was detected in five of 49 patients with alcoholic chronic pancreatitis (10.2%; 2.3 times the expected frequency) and in three of 14 patients with idiopathic-juvenile chronic pancreatitis (21.4%; 4.8 times the expected frequency). No mutations were found in the remaining patients with chronic pancreatitis of rare causes, hereditary pancreatitis, and recurrent acute pancreatitis. The frequency of pancreatic calcifications was significantly higher in patients with alcoholic chronic pancreatitis without mutations. This result was not confirmed in patients with idiopathic-juvenile chronic pancreatitis. The duration of pain and the frequency of exocrine and endocrine insufficiency was comparable in both subgroups irrespective of the mutation status. CONCLUSION: Our data indicate a significantly increased frequency of cystic fibrosis gene mutations both in patients with alcoholic and idiopathic-juvenile chronic pancreatitis. The natural course was similar in patients with mutations compared to those without mutations.

Adult↗
PubMed2001

Fetus and uteroplacental unit: fast MR imaging with three-dimensional reconstruction and volumetry--feasibility study.

In 22 fetuses, three-dimensional reconstruction was performed on the basis of T2-weighted magnetic resonance (MR) data sets by using a surface-rendering technique. Fetuses and uteroplacental units were segmented manually; volumes were calculated automatically. Three-dimensional reconstruction and volumetry of the fetus and uteroplacental unit are feasible with MR data sets. MR estimates correlated closely with ultrasonographic fetal biometric estimates and birth weight.

Adult↗
PubMed2001

Metastatic primitive neuroectodermal tumor of the kidney in adults.

OBJECTIVE: Primitive neuroectodermal tumors (PNET) of the kidney are rare and highly aggressive malignancies. The purpose of our study was to present information about the management of patients with metastatic disease. METHODS: The records of 2 patients (30-year-old female and 32-year-old male) with metastatic PNET of the kidney were reviewed and our data compared with the literature. RESULTS: Neither clinical evaluation nor radiological methods allowed to distinguish PNET from renal cell carcinoma. Immunohistochemistry revealed strong positivity for CD99 in tumor 1 and weak positivity for NSE and vimentin in both tumors. In tumor 2, EWS/FLI1 translocation was detected by RT-PCR. Patient 1 underwent nephrectomy, seven cycles of polychemotherapy, two cycles of high-dose chemotherapy, autologous bone marrow rescue, radiotherapy of suspicious skeletal foci and is without evidence of recurrent disease 28 months after therapy. Patient 2 underwent six cycles of polychemotherapy, nephrectomy, high-dose chemotherapy with cyclophosphamide and abdominal radiotherapy. Because of relapse high-dose chemotherapy with stem cell rescue was not performed. He underwent three further cycles of polychemotherapy and died one year after diagnosis due to cerebral metastasis. CONCLUSIONS: The diagnosis of renal PNET must be considered in young patients with renal neoplasm, particularly those with advanced disease at presentation. Achieving exact diagnosis has important clinical consequences because polychemotherapy and high-dose chemotherapy may lead to dramatic tumor reduction or even complete remission.

12E7 Antigen↗
PubMed2001

Ultrafast MR imaging of the pelvic floor.

OBJECTIVE: The aim of this study was to compare pelvic floor anatomy and laxity at rest and on straining (Valsalva's maneuver) using dynamic ultrafast MR imaging in women who were continent versus those with stress incontinence differing in obstetric history. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Thirty continent women were divided into three equal groups (nulliparous, previous cesarean delivery, previous vaginal delivery) and compared with 10 women with stress-incontinence with a history of at least one vaginal delivery. MR imaging of the pelvic floor at rest and on maximal strain was performed, using axial T2-weighted fast spin-echo images followed by sagittal ultrafast T2-weighted single-shot fast spin-echo sequences. Mean population age (age range, 22-45 years; mean +/- SD, 36 +/- 5.4 years), was similar in the four groups, as was parity in the three parous groups. RESULTS: Mean distances between the bladder floor and pubococcygeal line at rest did not differ between the four groups. On straining, bladder floor descent was 1.1 +/- 0.9, 1.0 +/- 1.1, and 1.9 +/- 0.9 cm in continent nulliparous, cesarean delivery, and vaginal delivery women, respectively, versus 3.2 +/- 1.0 cm in incontinent women (p = 0.0005). Cervical descent was greater in incontinent versus nulliparous women (p = 0.0019). Bladder floor descent was greater in the continent vaginal delivery group than in continent cesarean delivery control patients (p = 0.04). In patients with stress incontinence, symptoms did not correlate with amplitude of descent. The right levator muscle was thinner overall than the left, regardless of frequency direction (p = 0.001). CONCLUSION: Ultrafast MR imaging using the T2-weighted single-shot fast spin-echo sequence allows dynamic evaluation of the pelvic compartments at maximal strain with no need for contrast medium. Pelvic floor laxity and supporting fascia abnormalities were most common in patients with stress incontinence followed by continent women with a history of vaginal delivery. The results are therefore compatible with the hypothesis of vaginal delivery as a contributory factor to stress incontinence in older parous women.

Adult↗
PubMed2000

Echocardiography in the evaluation of systolic murmurs of unknown cause.

PURPOSE: Systolic murmurs are common, and it is important to know whether physical examination can reliably determine their cause. Therefore, we prospectively assessed the diagnostic accuracy of a cardiac examination in patients without previous echocardiography who were referred for evaluation of a systolic murmur. SUBJECTS AND METHODS: In 100 consecutive adults (mean [+/- SD] age of 58 +/- 22 years) who were referred for a systolic murmur of unknown cause, the diagnostic accuracy of the cardiac examination by cardiologists (without provision of clinical history, electrocardiogram, or chest radiograph) was compared with the results of echocardiography. RESULTS: The echocardiographic findings included a normal examination (functional murmur) in 21 patients, aortic stenosis in 29 patients, mitral regurgitation in 30 patients, left or right intraventricular pressure gradient in 11 patients, mitral valve prolapse in 11 patients, ventricular septal defect in 4 patients, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy in 3 patients, and associated aortic regurgitation in 28 patients. In 28 (35%) of the 79 patients with organic heart disease, more than one abnormality was found; combined aortic and mitral valve disease was the most frequent combination (n = 22). The sensitivity of the cardiac examination was acceptable for detecting ventricular septal defect (100% [4 of 4]), isolated mitral regurgitation (88% [26 of 36]), aortic stenosis (71% [21 of 29]), and a functional murmur (67% [14 of 21]), but not for intraventricular pressure gradients (18% [2 of 11]), aortic regurgitation (21% [6 of 28]), combined aortic and mitral valve disease (55% [6 of 11]), and mitral valve prolapse (55% [12 of 22]). In 6 patients, the degree of aortic stenosis was misjudged on the clinical examination, mainly because of a severely diminished left ventricular ejection fraction. Significant heart disease was missed completely in only 2 patients. CONCLUSION: In adults with a systolic murmur of unknown cause, a functional murmur can usually be distinguished from an organic murmur. However, the ability of the cardiac examination to assess the exact cause of the murmur is limited, especially if more than one lesion is present. Thus, echocardiography should be performed in patients with systolic murmurs of unknown cause who are suspected of having significant heart disease.

Adolescent↗
PubMed2000

Value of (18F)-FDG positron emission tomography, computed tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging in diagnosing primary and recurrent ovarian carcinoma.

The aim of this study was to compare prospectively the accuracy of whole-body positron emission tomography (PET), CT and MRI in diagnosing primary and recurrent ovarian cancer. Nineteen patients (age range 23-76 years) were recruited with suspicious ovarian lesions at presentation (n = 8) or follow-up for recurrence (n = 11). All patients were scheduled for laparotomy and histological confirmation. Whole-body PET with FDG, contrast-enhanced spiral CT of the abdomen, including the pelvis, and MRI of the entire abdomen were performed. Each imaging study was evaluated separately. Imaging findings were correlated with histopathological diagnosis. The sensitivity, specificity and accuracy for lesion characterization in patients with suspicious ovarian lesions (n = 7) were, respectively: 100, 67 and 86% for PET; 100, 67 and 86% for CT; and 100, 100 and 100% for MRI. For the diagnosis of recurrent disease (n = 10), PET had a sensitivity of 100%, specificity of 50% and accuracy of 90%. The PET technique was the only technique which correctly identified a single transverse colon metastasis. Results for CT were 40, 50 and 43%, and for MRI 86, 100 and 89%, respectively. No statistically significant difference was seen. Neither FDG PET nor CT nor MRI can replace surgery in the detection of microscopic peritoneal disease. No statistically significant difference was observed for the investigated imaging modalities with regard to lesion characterization or detection of recurrent disease; thus, the methods are permissible alternatives. The PET technique, however, has the drawback of less accurate spatial assignment of small lesions compared with CT and MRI.

Adult↗
PubMed2000

Maximal isometric muscle strength: normative values and gender-specific relation to age.

To date, there have been very few studies on the age dependence of maximal isometric muscle strength (MIMS) in healthy subjects aged 20-80 years, based upon measurements of a large number of functional muscle groups (FMGs). Using a hand-held pull gauge it is possible to measure MIMS of nearly every FMG. The objectives of this study were to obtain normative values for MIMS, to evaluate differences in MIMS in relation to gender and body side and to compare the age dependence of muscle strength between women and men. In a convenience sample of 290 healthy women (aged 20-82 years) and 253 men (aged 21-79 years), MIMS of 51 FMGs was measured. For each FMG the age dependence of MIMS was depicted, side and gender specific, as percentile curves and was analysed using linear quantile regression analysis. MIMS was found to be significantly higher in men than in women and higher on the right than on the left side. A biphasic model with linear equations for strength medians was derived for each gender. The age at transition from phase 1 to phase 2 was 55 years (SD 8) for women and 49 years (SD 13) for men. During phase 1, MIMS did not decrease significantly. During phase 2, MIMS decreased in all FMGs in both genders with a steeper slope in women (-0.92) than in men (-0.63). The age dependence of MIMS differed significantly between women and men. The present study gives gender-specific equations which enable one to calculate normative values for MIMS, as measured with a pull gauge, based upon age. These normative values will allow an objective assessment of patients with diminished muscle strength as, for example, in myositis, rheumatoid arthritis and nerve root compression syndromes or in the elderly.

Adult↗
PubMed2000

Preoperative clonidine attenuates stress response during emergence from anesthesia.

STUDY OBJECTIVES: To investigate whether a single preoperative IV dose of clonidine blunts the hemodynamic and hyperadrenergic responses not only to intubation, but also to extubation. DESIGN: Randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study. PATIENTS: 29 ASA physical status I and II patients (ages 18-65) who were scheduled for noncardiac, elective surgery. Patients were randomly assigned to either receive clonidine 3 microg/kg IV immediately before anesthesia induction or placebo. INTERVENTIONS: Insertion of a 14 G cannula in a large cubital vein for the determination of plasma catecholamines using local anesthesia. Insertion of a radial artery catheter for measuring blood pressure (BP) using local anesthesia. Transthoracic echocardiography to determine cardiac output (CO). MEASUREMENTS: Heart rate (HR), mean arterial pressure (MAP), CO, and plasma catecholamine concentrations. Measurements were performed: before induction (baseline), during intubation, 10 min after intubation, after surgery, during extubation, and 10 min after extubation. MAIN RESULTS: During intubation MAP, HR, and CO were lower in the clonidine group. Compared with baseline measurements, MAP and CO increased less in the clonidine group during intubation. During extubation, MAP was lower in the clonidine group. CO and MAP increased less as compared with baseline measurements in the clonidine group. Compared with the measurements after surgery CO less in the clonidine group during extubation (p < 0.05 for all results). CONCLUSIONS: A single preoperative IV dose of clonidine (3 microg/kg) blunts the hemodynamic responses due to extubation in noncardiac surgery of intermediate duration.

Adolescent↗
PubMed2000

Surgery for acute type a aortic dissection: comparison of techniques.

OBJECTIVE: In order to determine the optimal surgical strategy for acute ascending aortic dissection, the graft inclusion technique was compared with the open resection technique. METHODS: Between 1985 and 1995 a consecutive series of 193 patients (77% male, mean age 58 years) had emergency surgery during a mean interval of 13.2 h after onset of symptoms. Graft replacement of the ascending aorta was performed in all patients (supracoronary graft 143/193=74%, aortic root replacement 50/193=26%, aortic valve replacement 73/193=38%, arch replacement 44/193=20%) The open resection technique was applied in 93 patients and the inclusion technique in 100 patients with a Cabrol-shunt in 26%. Preoperative risk factors were equally distributed between groups (inclusion technique vs. open technique): left ventricular ejection fraction<45% (13 vs. 2%, not significant (n.s.)), neurological deficit (31 vs. 25%; n.s.), systolic blood pressure<90 mm Hg (20 vs. 15%, n.s.) pericardial tamponade (25 vs. 9%, n.s.), renal failure (6 vs. 4%; n.s.). RESULTS: The overall early mortality was 24%. Following graft inclusion it was 31% compared with 16% in the open technique group (P=0.0154). Postoperative complications (graft inclusion vs. open technique): myocardial infarction (9 vs. 12%, n.s.), low cardiac output (40 vs. 32%, n.s.), reexploration for hemorrhage (23 vs. 25%, n.s.). Survival at 8 years was significantly increased in the open technique group (P=0.0300). Pseudoaneurysm formation occurred in 3% of patients and only after graft inclusion. Freedom from reoperation was 80% at 8 years and did not differ between groups. Graft inclusion was an independent significant predictor of early (P=0.0069; relative risk=2.3673) and late mortality (P=0.0119; relative risk=2.0981). CONCLUSIONS: Surgery of acute ascending aortic dissection still carries a considerable early mortality whereas the late outcome is satisfactory. The open resection technique is the method of choice showing superior early and late results and avoiding pseudoaneurysm formation. The inclusion technique may be indicated in situations with increased risk of bleeding. A consequent decompression of the perigraft-space could reduce the rate of pseudoaneurysms.

Acute Disease↗
PubMed2000

Paravalvular leakage after mitral valve replacement: improved long-term survival with aggressive surgery?

BACKGROUND: Following mitral valve replacement, surgical closure of paravalvular leaks is usually advised in severely symptomatic patients and in those requiring blood transfusions for persisting haemolysis. However, the long-term prognosis of less symptomatic patients or those not needing blood transfusions is unknown. METHODS: Between 1987 and 1997, we observed 96 patients with mitral paravalvular leakage. A paraprosthetic leak was diagnosed after a median time of 119 days (range: 1 day-23 years) after primary mitral valve replacement. During an average follow-up of 5 years (range: 1-23 years), 50/96 patients were referred for surgical closure. RESULTS: Compared with patients who received conservative treatment, those referred for surgery had a significantly lower mean preoperative haematocrit (P = 0.002) with a higher proportion of patients being in the NYHA class III/IV (P = 0.03). Age, gender, left ventricular function and number and size of leaks did not differ between the groups. The 30-day postoperative mortality for valve reoperation was 6% (3/50); during follow-up three further patients died, resulting in an overall mortality rate of 12%. In the group treated conservatively there was a mortality rate of 26% (12/46). Thus, the actuarial survival for patients referred for surgery was 98, 90 and 88% after 1, 5 and 10 years, compared with 90, 75 and 68% for patients treated conservatively (long-rank P = 0.03). In addition, there was a significant increase in mean haematocrit levels (P = 0.0001) and an improvement in NYHA class III/IV symptoms (P = 0.002), vertigo (P = 0.001) and fatigue (P = 0.001) after surgery. CONCLUSIONS: Following mitral valve replacement, a more aggressive surgical treatment is recommended for patients with paraprosthetic leaks. Surgery should be offered to less symptomatic patients, as well as those not requiring blood transfusion.

Adult↗
PubMed2000

CD4 + /CD7- T cell frequency and polymerase chain reaction-based clonality assay correlate with stage in cutaneous T cell lymphomas.

In cutaneous T cell lymphomas, tumor cells can be found in skin and in other compartments. A precise definition of extracutaneous spread including blood involvement is necessary for staging and treatment design. We investigated peripheral blood in 51 patients with various types of cutaneous T cell lymphomas by the analysis of blood smears for Sézary cells, the CD4 + /CD7- T helper cell frequency in the peripheral blood by fluorescence activated cell sorter analysis and by polymerase chain reaction for the T cell receptor gamma-chain followed by denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis. Eleven polymerase chain reaction products were sequenced. Thirty-five per cent of patients with stage Ia-IIb cutaneous T cell lymphomas presented a peripheral blood T cell clone. In patients with stage III-IVb cutaneous T cell lymphomas 75% were positive for clonality in the peripheral blood by polymerase chain reaction. Interestingly, three of 13 Sézary patients showed a TCR-gamma joining region pseudogene (JgammaP1/JgammaP2) usage. CD4 + /CD7- cell counts were significantly higher in patients with advanced cutaneous T cell lymphomas than in patients with early cutaneous T cell lymphomas. There was a correlation between increased percentage of circulating CD4 + /CD7- cells and detection of clonality by polymerase chain reaction (p = 0.001). There was no significant correlation between the polymerase chain reaction data and the percentage of Sézary cells on blood smears. A significant correlation between CD4 + /CD7- cells and Sézary cells was found, however. Stepwise logistic regression analysis showed that the CD4 + /CD7- cell count and clonal T cell detection in peripheral blood are independently correlated with stage. The combination of both parameters gives more information than each one separately. In conclusion, our data indicate that fluorescence activated cell sorter analysis of peripheral blood and polymerase chain reaction-based clonality assays can improve the accuracy of staging investigations in cutaneous T cell lymphomas patients.

Antigens, CD7↗