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Biomedical subjects

A Nakamura

Publications and source records attributed to A Nakamura.

At least 217 records · Page 12Linked to original sources
PubMed1999

Spatial expression of Drosophila glutathione S-transferase-D1 in the alimentary canal is regulated by the overlying visceral mesoderm.

Regional gene expression within Drosophila gut epithelium is regulated by the homeotic genes expressed in the overlying visceral mesoderm. Here it is reported that Glutathione S-transferase-D1 (Gst-D1) had three distinctive expression domains in the gut epithelia: the inner epithelium of the proventriculus, the anterior border of the hindgut epithelium, and the midgut epithelium. Gst-D1 expression in the midgut epithelium became restricted to the region that later formed the third midgut constriction. This spatial restriction within the midgut epithelium required abdominal-A activity in the overlying visceral mesoderm, suggesting that Gst-D1 will be a useful marker to analyze the mechanism of gene regulation across the mesoderm and endoderm.

Animals↗
PubMed1999

Modulation of interleukin-6 by beta2-adrenoceptor in endotoxin-stimulated renal macrophage cells.

BACKGROUND: Activation of the cAMP signaling pathway by means of beta2-adrenoceptor agonists has been shown to up-regulate interleukin-6 (IL-6) gene expression and to stimulate IL-6 production in macrophage cells. However, whether beta2-adrenoceptor activation can also modify the rate of IL-6 production in macrophage cells activated by the bacterial endotoxins has not yet been determined. Using renal resident macrophage cells treated with endotoxin, lipopolysaccharide (LPS), and beta2-adrenoceptor agonist, terbutaline, we investigated the role of cAMP pathway, tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha and mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathway (p42/p44) in regulating IL-6 production. METHODS: IL-6 protein, mRNA, and promoter activity were measured in these cells exposed to LPS (1 microg/ml) and/or terbutaline (10(-9) to 10(-6) M). Furthermore, the time course effects of terbutaline on cAMP, MAPK (p42/p44), and TNF-alpha release were evaluated in the cells. RESULTS: Terbutaline at high concentrations (10(-6) M) significantly up-regulated IL-6 by approximately 25% (P<0.05), whereas at a lower concentration (10(-8) M), it down-regulated IL-6 production by 42% (P<0.05). Terbutaline (10(-8) and 10(-6) M) caused a concentration- and time-dependent stimulation of cAMP (P<0.05) and TNF production (P<0.05) and a time-dependent decrease in MAPK activity (P<0.05). Following the addition of a cAMP inhibitor, IL-6 promoter activity was correlated with TNF-alpha levels and MAPK activity. CONCLUSIONS: A biphasic effect of beta2-adrenoceptor agonist on IL-6 production in renal resident macrophage cells became apparent when LPS was exposed to the cells. The terbutaline-induced down-regulation of IL-6 gene production was mediated by an inhibitory effect of terbutaline on TNF-alpha, which was exerted through the MAPK and cAMP pathways, whereas the up-regulation appeared to be due to a direct action of intracellular cAMP.

Adrenergic beta-Agonists↗
PubMed1999

Effects of urinary metabolites of etodolac on diagnostic tests of bilirubin in urine.

Etodolac (CAS 41340-25-4) is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used clinically. The bilirubin levels in urine samples from patients treated with etodolac were determined with diagnostic tests (diazo and oxidized methods). The urine samples gave a positive reaction with a diazo method, but not with an oxidized method. The serum concentrations of bilirubin in the patients were also in the normal range. These results indicate that the positive reaction of the urine samples from patients treated with etodolac is false and caused by urinary metabolites of etodolac. To identify the false positive substance in the urine samples, the urinary metabolites of etodolac were extracted with ethyl acetate. The extract was injected into a high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) column and the eluate was mixed with the diazo reagent. Three positive fractions were found. The retention times of the two metabolites in HPLC matched with those of the 6- and 7-hydroxylated metabolites of etodolac. In addition, authentic compounds of the 6- and 7-hydroxylated metabolites gave a positive reaction in the diazo methods. These results indicate that the 6- and 7-hydroxylated metabolites are mainly responsible for the false positive reactions of the urine sample from patients treated with etodolac.

Aged↗
PubMed1999

Cytochrome P450 isoforms responsible for the N-deethylation and cyclohexane-hydroxylation of NS-21.

1. Cytochrome P450 (P450) isoforms responsible for the N-deethylation and cyclohexane-hydroxylation of (+/-)-4-diethylamino-1,1-dimethylbut-2-yn-1-yl 2-cyclohexyl-2-hydroxy-2-phenylacetate monohydrochloride monohydrate (NS-21) have been identified in rat and man. 2. Anti-CYP2C11 antibody inhibited the N-deethylation of S- and R-NS-21 in rat hepatic microsomes by 84 and 66% respectively, indicating that CYP2C11 is mainly responsible for these activities in male rats. 3. Of several human recombinant P450 isoforms, CYP3A4 had the activities for the N-deethylation of S- and R-NS-21. In addition, triacetyloleandomycin (TAO), an inhibitor of the CYP3A subfamily, significantly inhibited the N-deethylation of S- and R-NS-21 in human hepatic microsomes by 67 and 69%, respectively. CYP3A4 therefore contributes to it in man. 4. Quinine, an inhibitor of the rat CYP2D subfamily, significantly inhibited the cyclohexane-4-cis-hydroxylation of S-NS-21 by 48% in rat hepatic microsomes. In contrast, this inhibitor had little effect on the cyclohexane-4-trans-hydroxylation of S-NS-21, and the cyclohexane-4-cis- and trans-hydroxylation of R-NS-21. 5. Human recombinant CYP3A4 catalysed the cyclohexane-4-trans-hydroxylation of S-NS-21, and CYP2D6 supported the cyclohexane-4-cis- and trans-hydroxylation of S-NS-21. Quinidine, an inhibitor of human CYP2D6, had little effect on these latter activities in human hepatic microsomes. TAO significantly inhibited the cyclohexane-4-trans-hydroxylation of S-NS-21 by 75%, indicating that CYP3A4 catalyses this reaction.

Animals↗
PubMed1999

The human amygdala plays an important role in gaze monitoring. A PET study.

Social contact often initially depends on ascertaining the direction of the other person's gaze. We determined the brain areas involved in gaze monitoring by a functional neuroimaging study. Discrimination between the direction of gaze significantly activated a region in the left amygdala during eye-contact and no eye-contact tasks to the same extent. However, a region in the right amygdala was specifically activated only during the eye-contact task. Results confirm that the left amygdala plays a general role in the interpretation of eye gaze direction, and that the activity of the right amygdala of the subject increases when another individual's gaze is directed towards him. This suggests that the human amygdala plays a role in reading social signals from the face.

Adult↗
PubMed1999

Molecular cloning and expression of the novel fungal beta-glucosidase genes from Humicola grisea and Trichoderma reesei.

A novel fungal beta-glucosidase gene (bgl4) and its homologue (bgl2) were cloned from the cellulolytic fungi Humicola grisea and Trichoderma reesei, respectively. The deduced amino acid sequences of H. grisea BGL4 and T. reesei BGL2 comprise 476 and 466 amino acids, respectively, and share 73.1% identity. These beta-glucosidases show significant homology to plant beta-glucosidases belonging to the beta-glucosidase A (BGA) family. Both genes were expressed in Aspergillus oryzae, and the recombinant beta-glucosidases were purified. Recombinant H. grisea BGL4 is a thermostable enzyme compared with recombinant T. reesei BGL2. In addition to beta-glucosidase activity, recombinant H. grisea BGL4 showed a significant level of beta-galactosidase activity, while recombinant T. reesei BGL2 showed weak beta-galactosidase activity. Cellulose saccharification by Trichoderma cellulases was improved by the addition of recombinant H. grisea BGL4.

Amino Acid Sequence↗
PubMed1999

Crystallization and preliminary X-ray diffraction studies of a 40 kDa calcium binding protein specifically expressed in plasmodia of Physarum polycephalum.

A calcium binding protein with a molecular mass of 40 kDa (CBP40), the gene product of plasmodial-specific LAV1-2 of Physarum polycephalum, was crystallized in the presence of EDTA. The crystals diffracted X-rays up to a resolution of 3.0 A. They belonged to the trigonal space group, P3221 (or P3121), with unit cell dimensions of a = b = 64.4 A and c = 207.2 A. Ca2+-bound crystals were obtained by soaking in a CaCl2 solution, which gave diffraction data of similar quality. The Ca2+-soaked crystals belonged to the same space group as those crystallized in the presence of EDTA with unit cell dimensions of a = b = 64.4 A and c = 209.4 A.

Animals↗
PubMed1999

Compilation and characterization of Arabidopsis thaliana response regulators implicated in His-Asp phosphorelay signal transduction.

His-Asp phosphorelays are evolutionary-conserved powerful biological tactics for intracellular signal transduction. Such a phosphorelay is generally made up of "sensor histidine (His)-kinases", "response regulators", and "histidine-containing (HPt) phosphotransmitters". In the higher plant, Arabidopsis thaliana, results from recent intensive studies suggested that His-Asp phosphorelays may be widely used for propagating environmental stimuli, such as phytohormones (e.g., ethylene and cytokinin). In this study, we first inspected extensively the occurrence of Arabidopsis response regulators in order to compile and characterize them. The results showed that this higher plant has, at least, 14 members of the family of response regulators that can be classified into two distinct subtypes (type-A and type-B), as judged from their structural designs, biochemical properties, and expression profiles. Comparative studies were conducted for each representative (ARR3 and ARR4 for type-A, and ARR10 for type-B). It was suggested that expression of the type-A response regulator is cytokinin-inducible, while that of the type-B response regulator appears to be not. Results from yeast two-hybrid analyses suggested that the type-B response regulator may have an ability to stably interact with a set of HPt phosphotransmitters (AHPs). These and other results will be discussed with special reference to the His-Asp phosphorelay signaling network in Arabidopsis thaliana.

Amino Acid Sequence↗
PubMed1999

Macrocystic schwannoma in the seventh cervical nerve.

We have recently treated a case of asymptomatic macrocystic schwannoma discovered between the left neck and the supraclavicular fossa. The tumor, originating from the left seventh cervical nerve, was extirpated. Nearly 70 percent of the tumor area showed macrocyst with transparent fluid collection. The tumor was diagnosed as macrocystic schwannoma histopathologically. Schwannoma is often associated with small cysts but rarely with macrocysts. Because schwannoma is a benign tumor, partial resection against an attempt at total removal resulting in progressive neurologic deficits is recommended. In general, schwannoma does not present any apparent symptoms at an early stage, because it occurs and progresses very slowly. Schwannoma originating at the spinal nerve root has been called a dumbbell-shaped tumor because of its characteristic shape on MRI and cystogram images. We recently have treated a case of dumbbell-shaped tumor that was an asymptomatic macrocystic schwannoma in the seventh cervical nerve.

Adult↗
PubMed1999

Chemical analysis of melanin pigments in feather germs of Japanese quail Bh (black at hatch) mutants.

Bh (black at hatch) is a mutation of Japanese quails which causes darkening or lightening of the plumage in heterozygotes or homozygotes, respectively. We chemically analyzed melanin pigments in feather germs of Bh mutant embryos and in feathers of adult animals. Dark brown dorsal feathers of wild-type adult animals had white barrings, but heterozygous ones lacked clear barrings. The feathers of wild-type and heterozygote animals contained both eumelanins and pheomelanins, the latter being more pheomelanic. On the dorsal skin of 10-day old wild-type embryos, longitudinal stripes from black and yellow rows of feather germs developed; two or three longitudinal rows of black feather germs and then two or three rows of yellow feather germs next to the short central feather germs. Heterozygous embryos appeared black in plumage pigmentation, due to the presence of 'gray' feather germs in rows of dorsal feather germs that corresponded to yellow rows in wild-type embryos. Homozygous dorsal feather germs did not develop the black and yellow longitudinal stripes, but were brown. Chemical analysis showed that embryos of each genotype contained both eumelanins and pheomelanins in the feather germs; however, the eumelanin content in homozygous feather germs was very low. These results suggest that the Bh mutation causes pheomelanic changes in feathers of quails.

Animals↗
PubMed1999

[Usefulness of rapid antigen detection for the diagnosis of systemic infections due to Haemophilus influenzae].

Twenty-eight cases of systemic infections due to Haemophilus influenzae diagnosed from October 1988 to December 1998 were analyzed retrospectively. The clinical manifestations were 13 meningitis (15 episodes), 9 septic arthritis, 4 acute epiglottitis, 1 septicemia and 1 lung abscess. In the 15 meningitis episodes, 13 had positive CSF culture results, and the other 2 episodes of pretreated with antibiotics were diagnosed by H. influenzae type b (Hib) antigen detection by using concentrated urine specimens. In the 9 septic arthritis cases, 6 had positive synovial fluid culture results. Of the 3 cases with negative results on Gram stain and on synovial fluid and blood cultures, etiological diagnosis was established by Hib antigen detection in synovial fluid. Results of Hib antigen detection were positive in all 8 cases (100%). In 6 of these 8 cases, antimicrobial therapy was started by the results of antigen detection. In the 4 acute epiglottitis, 2 had positive blood culture results, and the other 1 case was diagnosed by Hib antigen detection by using concentrated urine specimen. In 3 of these 4 cases, H. influenzae strains isolated from nasopharyngeal swab or aspirated sputum were serotyped as type b. In this study, rapid antigen detection has several advantages in the rapid laboratory diagnosis of systemic infections due to Haemophilus influenzae. 1. The detection of Hib antigen is the only way to diagnose bacterial etiology of infection in patients who had received partially treatment with antimicrobials. Urine is as an appropriate specimen for antigen testing as CSF in patients with suspected Hib meningitis. Moreover, to detect Hib antigen in synovial fluid is clinically useful in septic arthritis. 2. Both the antigen detection and Gram stain made the rapid presumptive identifications and effected therapeutic decision making. 3. Antigen detection methods have also been used in serotyping of clinical isolates. We conclude that rapid antigen detection is a very useful tool for the rapid etiological diagnosis and guideline for the choice of antimicrobials in systemic infections due to Hib. It is necessary to diagnose bacterial etiology as a routine procedure using not only Gram stain and culture but also rapid antigen detection technique in patients with suspected Hib systemic infection.

Antigens, Bacterial↗
PubMed1999

[Biochemical and molecular characterization of Salmonella ser. enteritidis phage type 1 isolated from food poisoning outbreaks in Tokyo].

Since the first outbreak in 1990, the incidence of Salmonella ser. Enteritidis (S. Enteritidis) phage type (PT) 1 food poisoning has gradually increased in Tokyo and has reached approximately 30% of the total S. Enteritidis outbreaks reported. To characterise these S. Enteritidis PT1 food poisoning, a total of 198 strains obtained from 44 outbreaks between 1990 and 1996 were examined for antimicrobial resistance, acid producibility from glycols (propylene and ethylene glycol) and plasmid DNA profiles. The 44 PT1 outbreaks analysed were further subdivided into 11 types by epidemiological markers. The most common patterns were type A (plasmid profile carrying only one plasmid (60 kb). SM and TC resistance and non producibility from glycols), and type B (plasmid profile carrying two plasmids (60 and 20 kb), SM resistance and no producibility from glycols) and were responsible for 21 (47.7%) and 15 (34.1%) outbreaks, respectively. In 11 of 44 outbreaks, strains carrying identical epidemiological markers were isolated both from patients and vehicle foods, environments, and/or food-handlers. Similar to PT4 and PT34 outbreaks reported in Japan, egg and egg-related foods were also suspected in 8 of these 11 outbreaks. Of interest, chicken which were not pointed out in PT4 and PT 34 outbreaks was also suspected as a vehicle of transmission in two outbreaks.

Bacteriophage Typing↗
PubMed1999

[Influence of dexamethasone on the clinical course of bacterial meningitis in children. Especially on secondary fever. Experiences in 27 institutions].

Of pediatric patients with purulent meningitis seen at the institutions listed in the title page of this paper between 1986 and 1994, 93 patients treated with antibiotics and dexamethasone (DXM) were compared with 91 patients treated with antibiotics alone. The patients receiving antibiotics with dexamethasone achieved overall improvement in inflammatory symptoms and signs and cerebrospinal fluid findings and became afebrile significantly earlier than those receiving antibiotics alone. However, some of the patients became febrile again. The secondary fever rate for the DXM group was much higher than that for the antibiotic alone group (p < 0.0001). In most of the rebounded cases, the body temperature rose above 38 degrees C and remained elevated for 2-4 days. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) was cultured daily in 54 and 32 patients receiving antibiotics with and without DXM, respectively. Although this study was not a controlled study in a strict sense, these patients compared. In both groups, the CSF became mostly culture-negative within 48 hours. In a few patients receiving DXM, however, it became culture-negative after 72 hours or longer. DXM caused an adverse effect in a patient with meningitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. The adverse effect was mild gastrointestinal bleeding, which recovered spontaneously. From the findings described above, the use of DXM combined with antibiotic therapy was considered to accelerate the relief from fever and improvement of inflammatory symptoms and signs and CSF findings. The body temperature rose again in more than half of the patients receiving DXM, but fell to normal spontaneously without treatment. The elevation doubtlessly could not be distinguished from recurrence of the meningitis itself or complications. It seems to be likely that no treatment but careful observation is required even if the fever recurs as far as the CSF findings showed favorable progress with excelluent general conditions. When DXM is given, it is essential that CSF tests and culture are repeated during the early stages and the progress is monitored carefully.

Anti-Bacterial Agents↗
PubMed1999

[Clinical analysis of patients with bacterial meningitis in childhood and reevaluation of rapid antigen detection methods].

Twenty-eight cases of bacterial meningitis during the recent ten years were analyzed retrospectively, and the following results were obtained. 1. Pathogens were as follows; H. influenzae 13 (46.4%), S. pneumoniae 8 (28.6%), S. agalactiae 4 (14.3%), E. coli 2 (7.1%), and L. monocytogenes 1 case (3.6%). 2. Twelve out of the thirteen H. influenzae cases were caused by serotype b (Hib), and 2 strains were beta-lactamase producer. Fifty percent of the S. pneumoniae cases were caused by penicillin-resistant strains. And all these resistant strains belonged to serotype 19 or 23. 3. Underlying diseases related to the onset of meningitis were found in 46% of the cases, and these consisted of CNS shunt operated 5, asplenia or polysplenia 2, Mondini's anomaly 1, sacral dermal sinus 1, and neonate 4 cases. 4. Prognosis of these cases were three deaths, four with neurologic sequelae, and twenty-one complete recoveries. 5. On admission, 85% (17/20) of the cases were diagnosed correctly by the rapid antigen detection. Sensitivity and specificity of the rapid antigen detection by using latex particle agglutination is 90% and 100% in the Hib cases, and 83% and 100% in the S. pneumoniae cases respectively. Moreover, the bacteriologically unknown 2 cases caused by parenteral partial treatment were also diagnosed by the detection of antigen in concentrated urine.

Antigens, Bacterial↗
PubMed1999

Identification of functional amino acids in the macrolide 2'-phosphotransferase II.

Macrolide 2'-phosphotransferase [MPH(2')] transfers the gamma phosphate of ATP to the 2'-OH group of macrolide antibiotics. The role of aspartic acids in the putative ATP-binding site of MPH(2')II was investigated through the substitution of alanine for aspartate by site-directed mutagenesis. D200A, D209A, D219A, and D231A mutant strains were unable to inactivate the substrate oleandomycin, while a D227A mutant retained 7% of the activity of the original enzyme.

Adenosine Triphosphate↗
PubMed1999

Activation of the right inferior frontal cortex during assessment of facial emotion.

We measured regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF) using positron emission tomography (PET) to determine which brain regions are involved in the assessment of facial emotion. We asked right-handed normal subjects to assess the signalers' emotional state based on facial gestures and to assess the facial attractiveness, as well as to discriminate the background color of the facial stimuli, and compared the activity produced by each condition. The right inferior frontal cortex showed significant activation during the assessment of facial emotion in comparison with the other two tests. The activated area was located within a triangular area of the inferior frontal cortex in the right cerebral hemisphere. These results, together with those of previous imaging and clinical studies, suggest that the right inferior frontal cortex processes emotional communicative signals that could be visual or auditory and that there is a hemispheric asymmetry in the inferior frontal cortex in relation to the processing of emotional communicative signals.

Adult↗